CCNA Discovery 1 - Module Final 2 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Refer to the graphic. What feature can be installed on the Linksys integrated router to convert private IP addresses to Internet-routable addresses?
• authentication
• DHCP
• encryption
• firewall
• NAT
• WEP

2. Select three statements that correctly describe how DHCP services may be provided. (Choose three.)
• An integrated router provides IP configurations for most ISPs.
• An integrated router can act as both DHCP server and DHCP client.
• A home PC using a static IP address obtained that address from a DHCP server.
• Most home network integrated routers receive an IP configuration directly from their ISP.
• A variety of devices can act as DHCP servers, as long as they run DHCP service software.
• A home PC is required by standards to obtain an IP address and default gateway from a DHCP server (usually the ISP).

3. Which of the following statements best describes DNS?
• DNS servers are used to map an IP address to a physical address.
• DNS servers are used to map a name to an IP address.
• DNS servers are used to configure logical address information for host computers.
• DNS servers are used to translate from private addresses to public addresses.

4. When are leased lines typically used?
• when low bandwidth is required
• for home and small business connectivity
• when a dedicated digital data line is necessary
• as a less expensive option to cable and DSL modem service


5. Refer to the graphic. Assume that the command output is from a wireless DHCP client that is connected to a Linksys integrated router. What can be deduced from the output?
• The wireless connection is good.
• The WEP key or SSID needs to be checked.
• The DHCP configuration on the router needs to be checked.
• The wireless NIC driver or the NIC itself needs to be reinstalled.

6. Choose the option that shows the correct sequence of steps in the encapsulation of TCP/IP data that is passed from a source to a destination host?
A. converts data to bits for transmission
B. packages the data for end to end transport
C. adds the data-link header and trailer
D. adds the network IP address to the header of the frame
• A,B,C,D
• A,C,D,B
• B,D,C,A
• B,C,D,A
• D,C,B,A

7. What are two advantages of purchasing a custom-built computer? (Choose two.)
• usually a lower cost
• no waiting period for assembly
• user can specify higher performance components
• supports higher-end graphics and gaming applications
• fewer components to replace

8. What is an ISP?
• It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
• It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
• It is an organization that allows individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.
• It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

9. A wireless DHCP client cannot connect to the Internet through a Linksys integrated router. When you type ipconfig on the host, no IP address, subnet mask, or default gateway shows. What are two of the first things you will check? (Choose two.)
• SSID
• if the wireless client is configured for DHCP
• the cable between client and integrated router
• the firewall configuration on the integrated router
• if the correct default gateway is configured on the client
• if the correct default gateway is configured on the integrated router

10. Identify two causes of physical layer network problems. (Choose two.)
• logical addressing issues
• improperly terminated cables
• cables plugged into wrong ports
• incorrect MAC address assigned
• packets received out of sequence
• incorrect subnet mask on an interface

11. Which wireless protocol is used for encryption?
• EAP
• Open
• PSK
• WEP


12. Refer to the graphic. Assume that the exhibited output is from a host that is connected to a Linksys integrated router. What is one of the first things you should check?
• IP address on the host
• IP address on the router
• subnet mask on the host
• default gateway on the host
• link status LED on the front of the router

13. What is a service pack?
• an access policy
• an agreement between a company and a vendor
• a piece of code created to fix one specific problem
• a collection of patches and updates released by a vendor
• a small piece of software designed specifically for security issues

14. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device


15. Refer to the graphic. Based on the information that is shown, what statement is true?
• This configuration would be commonly found in an ad hoc wireless network.
• Any wireless client that is attached to this access point would have the same IP address and SSID.
• All wireless devices that are connected to this access point must have an assigned SSID of Academy.
• In addition to accepting wireless client requests, this access point must connect to the wired network.

16. Which of the following are transport layer protocols of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
• FTP
• UDP
• SMTP
• TFTP
• TCP

17. How does a crossover cable make it possible for two "like devices" (for example, two switches) to communicate?
• The transmit pins are disconnected and only the receive pins are used.
• The transmit pins on one device are connected to the transmit pins on the other device.
• The receive pins on one device are connected to the receive pins on the other device.
• The transmit pins on one device are connected to the receive pins on the other device.

18. What layer is the first point of entry for a host into the network?
• core layer
• access layer
• network layer
• distribution layer

19. What information within a data packet does a router use, by default, to make forwarding decisions?
• the destination MAC address
• the destination IP address
• the destination host name
• the destination service requested

20. What is the name for the contract between a customer and an ISP that specifies requirements for uptime and service response time?
• DSL
• IAB
• NAP
• SLA


21. Refer to the graphic. Based on the configuration information that is shown, which three types of 802.11 networks are allowed access to the WLAN? (Choose three.)
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11e
• 802.11g
• 802.11n
• 802.11x

22. Which installation option should be chosen when the current operating system is too damaged to work properly?
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• clean install
• virtualization

23. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
• 200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
• 150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
• 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
• 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
• 127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

24. What is specified by the network number in an IP address?
• the network to which the host belongs
• the physical identity of the computer on the network
• the node of the subnetwork which is being addressed
• the broadcast identity of subnetwork

25. A computer joins the network and announces itself to all hosts on the LAN. What type of message does the computer send out?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast

26. What two commands can be used to form a new binding if client information does not agree with the DHCP client table? (Choose two.)
• ipconfig /release
• ipconfig /all
• ipconfig /flushdns
• ipconfig /renew
• ipconfig

27. When acting as a DHCP server, an integrated router can provide what three types of information to a client? (Choose three.)
• physical address
• MAC address
• default gateway
• static IP address
• dynamic IP address
• DNS server address

28. What is an accurate description of network devices in the distribution layer?
• They are designed to interconnect individual hosts.
• They are designed to interconnect multiple companies.
• They are designed to interconnect local network segments.
• They are designed to switch data packets as fast as possible.

29. A network host is accessing a web server. What two protocols are most likely being used as the TCP/IP model application layer protocol and the internetwork layer protocol? (Choose two.)
• IP
• FTP
• TCP
• DHCP
• HTTP

30. For the second time in a week, workstations on a LAN are not able to log into the server. The technician fixed the problem the first time, but cannot remember the steps taken to solve it. What aspect of the troubleshooting process has the technician neglected?
• identifying the problem
• asking end-users questions
• documenting the troubleshooting process
• using structured techniques to solve a problem

31. Which three statements are true about local and network applications? (Choose three.)
• A local application is loaded in a local computer and can be accessed by a remote computer on the network.
• A network application is loaded in a local computer and accessed from a remote computer.
• A local application is loaded in a local computer and accessed only by the local computer.
• A network application is loaded in a local computer and accessed only by the local computer.
• An example of a local application is e-mail.
• An example of a network application is instant messaging.

32. Which statement is true concerning stateful packet inspection?
• Access is permitted based on IP addresses of the source and destination devices.
• Access is permitted based on the MAC addresses of the source and destination devices.
• Access is permitted only if the type of application that is attempting to reach the internal host is allowed.
• Access is permitted only if it is a legitimate response to a request from an internal host.

33. What action will a router take when it receives a frame with a broadcast MAC address?
• It will not forward the frame to another network.
• It forwards the frame back to the sending host with its IP address as a response.
• It forwards the frame out of all interfaces except the interface where the frame was received.
• It forwards the frame back out the receiving interface to insure all hosts on the local network receive it.

34. What is the default subnet mask for a class B address?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

35. Which protocol is used to transfer files among network devices and perform file-management functions?
• DNS
• FTP
• HTML
• HTTP


36. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of assigning a Network Name of Academy?
• It identifies the wireless LAN.
• It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.
• It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
• It allows access to the AP configuration GUI by name rather than address.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

37. Select the connection that would require a straight-through cable.
• a switch to a hub
• a router to a switch
• a switch to a switch
• a router to a router

38. What type of computer would most likely use a docking station?
• laptop
• server
• desktop
• mainframe
• workstation


39. Refer to the graphic. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?
• It identifies the wireless LAN.
• It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.
• It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.
• It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
• It ensures that only authorized users are allowed access to the WLAN.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

40. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel

41. What are two examples of storage peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
• printer
• flash drive
• headphones
• external DVD
• barcode reader

42. A host sent a message that all other hosts on the local network received and processed. What type of domain are all these hosts a part of?
• local domain
• multicast domain
• collision domain
• broadcast domain

43. What are the two possible values for a digital bit? (Choose two.)
• 1
• A
• F
• #
• 9

44. The area covered by a single AP is known as what?
• ad-hoc network
• basic service set
• independent basic service set
• extended service set
• distribution system

45. Within a local network, which two items must be unique on a computer for it to successfully connect to the network? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• subnet mask
• computer name
• default gateway address
• operating system version

46. Where do ISPs get the public addresses that they assign to end users?
• ISPs create the addresses themselves.
• ISPs are assigned addresses through the RFC.
• ISPs obtain their addresses automatically.
• ISPs obtain address blocks from registry organizations.

47. Your school network blocks all websites related to online gaming. What type of security policy is being applied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling

48. What measurement is commonly used to describe communication speed when transferring data?
• bps
• cps
• Hz
• MB

49. Which two statements correctly describe Media Access Control (MAC) addresses? (Choose two.)
• MAC addresses are used to identify a specific NIC.
• MAC addresses are physical addresses.
• MAC addresses contain a network number and unique host identification.
• MAC addresses are always assigned to network devices by a network administrator.
• MAC addresses can be dynamically assigned.

50. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is commonly used to exchange data between a PDA and a computer?
• FM
• radar
• infrared
• ultraviolet

51. When considering the purchase of a new operating system, what is meant by "Total Cost of Ownership?"
• applications and support costs
• hardware and support costs
• hardware and software costs
• hardware, software, and support costs
• hardware, operating system, and applications costs

52. When terminating UTP cabling, why is it important to untwist only a small amount of each wire pair?
• minimizes crosstalk
• makes installation faster
• ensures wires are in correct order
• makes it easier to fit wires into connector

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module Final 1 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Which two statements are true about local applications? (Choose two.)
• They run on the network.
• An example of a local application is e-mail.
• They are accessed from a remote computer.
• They are stored on the local hard disk.
• They run on the computer where they are installed.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The security policy of an organization allows employees to connect to the office intranet from their homes. Which type of security policy is this?
• acceptable use
• incident handling
• network maintenance
• remote access

3. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
• a specific host
• a group of hosts
• all hosts on the network
• the network broadcast address

4. What two pieces of information should a help desk technician document while troubleshooting connectivity issues with an end user? (Choose two.)
• the CPU clock speed of the computer
• the number of network jacks that are in the room
• if the user can ping the default gateway address
• if the word processing software is installed correctly
• whether the PC uses dynamic or static IP addressing

5. Which two transport layer protocols are used to transfer messages between hosts? (Choose two.)
• DHCP
• FTP
• SMTP
• TCP
• UDP

6. What is the purpose of a router?
• to forward broadcasts to all interfaces so that all hosts receive them
• to maintain a table of individual host addresses
• to select the best path to reach remote networks
• to physically connect multiple hosts that belong to the same network ?

7. What must be identical on all devices in a WLAN for successful wireless communication between the devices?
• SSID
• antenna type
• network mode
• wireless NIC driver

8. What two commands can be used to form a new binding if client information does not agree with the DHCP client table? (Choose two.)
• ipconfig /release
• ipconfig /all
• ipconfig /flushdns
• ipconfig /renew
• ipconfig

9. Which wireless protocol is used for encryption?
• EAP
• Open
• PSK
• WEP

10. Select three statements that correctly describe how DHCP services may be provided. (Choose three.)
• An integrated router provides IP configurations for most ISPs.
• An integrated router can act as both DHCP server and DHCP client.
• A home PC using a static IP address obtained that address from a DHCP server.
• Most home network integrated routers receive an IP configuration directly from their ISP.
• A variety of devices can act as DHCP servers, as long as they run DHCP service software.
• A home PC that is unable to find a DHCP server defaults to the static IP address of 192.168.1.1.

11. Refer to the graphic. What feature can be installed on the Linksys integrated router to convert private IP addresses to Internet-routable addresses?
• authentication
• DHCP
• encryption
• firewall
• NAT
• WEP

12. Which two causes of networking problems are related to the physical layer? (Choose two.)
• disconnected cables
• improper operation of cooling fans
• incorrect MAC address
• incorrect default gateway
• incorrect subnet mask

13. Which Windows command is used to display the configured IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway?
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup
• tracert

14. What are the two possible values for a digital bit? (Choose two.)
• 1
• A
• F
• #
• 9

15. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel

16. What is the name for the contract between a customer and an ISP that specifies requirements for uptime and service response time?
• DSL
• IAB
• NAP
• SLA

17. What is the default subnet mask for an IP address of 64.100.19.14?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

18. Refer to the graphic. Assume that the command output is from a wireless DHCP client that is connected to a Linksys integrated router. What can be deduced from the output?
• The wireless connection is good.
• The WEP key or SSID needs to be checked.
• The DHCP configuration on the router needs to be checked.
• The wireless NIC driver or the NIC itself needs to be reinstalled.

19. Which attribute must be the same for wireless devices on one network to be able to communicate with devices on a different network?
• DNS server
• MAC address
• default gateway
• operating system
• wireless equipment vendor

20. Which term is associated with logical addressing?
• IP addresses
• port addresses
• physical addresses
• Media Access Control addresses

21. Which type of computer has an integrated mouse?
• desktop
• laptop
• mainframe
• server
• pocket PC

22. What is an ISP?
• It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
• It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
• It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.
• It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

23. Which wireless component allows wireless clients to gain access to a wired network?
• PDA
• STA
• access point
• wireless bridge

24. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the web server at 209.165.200.226/27. Based on the provided output, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
• PC1 is not plugged in to RTR1.
• Port 80 is already in use on PC1.
• No DNS server is configured on PC1.
• PC1 is configured with an incorrect IP address and default gateway.

25. What will be one result of using a wireless infrastructure when designing the communications infrastructure for a new building?
• Wireless devices will be easy to add or relocate.
• Infrastructure installation will be difficult and expensive.
• There will be less interference from outside electronic sources.
• Data transmitted over wireless networks will be more secure than when transmitted over wired networks.

26. TCP/IP data transmission between the source and destination host is de-encapsulated in four steps:

A. The TCP header is removed.
B. Bits are decoded and the destination MAC address is recognized.
C. The IP header is removed and the contents are passed to the next layer.
D. The Ethernet header and trailer are removed.

What is the correct sequence of these steps?
• A, B, C, D
• A, C, B, D
• B, C, D, A
• B, D, C, A
• C, A, B, D

27. Which value represents the host portion of IP address 128.107.10.11 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?
• .10
• .10.11
• 128.107
• .107.10.11
• 128.107.10

28. A computer joins the network and announces itself to all hosts on the LAN. What type of message does the computer send out?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast

29. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device

30. For the second time in a week, workstations on a LAN are not able to log into the server. The technician fixed the problem the first time, but cannot remember the steps taken to solve it. What aspect of the troubleshooting process has the technician neglected?
• identifying the problem
• asking end-users questions
• documenting the troubleshooting process
• using structured techniques to solve a problem

31. What are two advantages of purchasing a custom-built computer? (Choose two.)
• usually a lower cost
• no waiting period for assembly
• user can specify higher performance components
• supports higher-end graphics and gaming applications
• fewer components to replace

32. How do ISPs obtain public IP addresses?
• They create the addresses themselves.
• They obtain the addresses from the home PCs
• They obtain the addresses from the Internet registry
• They obtain the addresses from the RFC.

33. Which installation option should be chosen when the current operating system is too damaged to work properly?
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• clean install
• virtualization

34. What describes the external IP address that is obtained by a router through a cable or DSL modem?
• a public address that is obtained from ICANN
• a private address that is manually configured by the administrator
• a public address that is obtained through DHCP from the ISP
• a private address that converts to a public address on the internal LAN

35. Refer to the exhibit. What default gateway address will be assigned to PC1 if access to remote resources is needed?
• 192.31.7.3
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.253
• A default gateway is not necessary.

36. Which picture shows a USB port on a PC?
• deze moet je toch echt weten..

37. Which Windows PC command line utility can be used to discover the path that a packet takes to reach a destination?
• ping
• netstat
• tracert
• nslookup
• ipconfig

38. What are three examples of logical configuration information used when planning a network implementation? (Choose three.)
• size of broadcast domains
• naming scheme
• length of cable runs
• IP addressing scheme
• physical device location
• location of power outlets

39. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)
• MAC address
• IP address
• kernel
• shell
• subnet mask

40. What is the purpose of pop-up blocker software?
• It detects and removes spyware.
• It detects and removes viruses.
• It prevents the display of advertisement windows.
• It removes unwanted e-mail.

41. Refer to the exhibit. A user on Host1 requests a web page from the web server. Which diagram is accurate for the encapsulation of the traffic that is sent from the user to the web server?
• ONBEKEND> Waarschijnlijk D

42. For devices that do not autosense, which connection requires a crossover cable?
• hub port to router port
• PC to hub port
• PC to switch port
• PC port to PC port

43. After attaching four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID and setting authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all PCs that are connected to the switch and WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device prior to connecting it to the Internet. What type of network device includes all of the described features?
• switch
• ISR router
• firewall appliance
• standalone wireless access point

44. Bottom-up troubleshooting begins at which layer of the OSI model?
• network layer
• physical layer
• data link layer
• transport layer
• application layer

45. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?
• DSL
• dial-up
• satellite
• cell modem
• cable modem

46. Which network design layer provides a connection point for end user devices to the network?
• access
• core
• distribution
• network

47. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is commonly used to exchange data between a PDA and a computer?
• FM
• radar
• infrared
• ultraviolet

48. How does a crossover cable make it possible for two "like devices" (for example, two switches) to communicate?
• The transmit pins are disconnected and only the receive pins are used.
• The transmit pins on one device are connected to the transmit pins on the other device.
• The receive pins on one device are connected to the receive pins on the other device.
• The transmit pins on one device are connected to the receive pins on the other device.

49. A company has a web server that must be accessible to both external and internal clients. Which security policy best practice should be followed to maximize security of the server?
• Place the web server in a DMZ.
• Keep the web server on the external network.
• Configure a firewall device to serve as the web server.
• Locate the web server in the server farm of the internal network.

50. Which statement accurately describes what network devices do in the distribution layer of the three layer design model?
• They interconnect individual hosts.
• They interconnect multiple companies.
• They interconnect local network segments.
• They interconnect the company network to the ISP.

51. An administrator is troubleshooting a network problem that involves the inability of users to reach Internet sites. During troubleshooting, the administrator is able to successfully ping web sites by their IP address, but pings to domain names are unsuccessful. Which service is most likely at fault?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• NAT

52. What are two examples of peripheral input devices? (Choose two.)
• external modem
• barcode reader
• digital camera
• plotter
• printer

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Which two items should be added to the documentation following a troubleshooting event? (Choose two.)
• final resolution
• repetitive measures
• number of people involved in the problem
• accurate current network infrastructure diagrams
• results of successful and unsuccessful troubleshooting steps

2. A technician suspects that a Linksys integrated router is the source of a network problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a blinking green activity LED on some of the ports. What does this indicate?
• Self-diagnostics have not completed.
• The power supply is the source of the problem.
• The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.
• The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.
• There are no cables plugged into those ISR ports.
• The ports have cables plugged in, but they are not functional.

3. Network baselines should be performed in which two situations? (Choose two.)
• after the network is installed and running optimally
• after a virus outbreak is discovered on the network
• after major changes are implemented on the network
• after several computers are added to the network
• at the end of the work week

4. Which three settings must match on the client and access point for a wireless connection to occur? (Choose three.)
• SSID
• authentication
• MD5 checksum
• antennae type
• encryption key
• MAC address filters

5. Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?
• top-down
• bottom-up
• substitution
• divide-and-conquer

6. A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session between a PC and a Linksys integrated router. Both devices have power, and a cable is connected between them. Which two troubleshooting steps could help to diagnose this problem? (Choose two.)
• Ensure the correct cable is used.
• Ensure the SSID is the same on both devices.
• Ensure both devices have the same IP address.
• Ensure both devices have different subnet masks.
• Ensure the encryption type on both devices match.
• Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit.

7. Refer to the graphic. The wireless host cannot access the Internet, but the wired host can. What is the problem?
• The host WEP key is incorrect.
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The integrated router internal IP address is incorrect.
• The integrated router Internet IP address is incorrect.

8. How does remote-access software help in the troubleshooting process?
• Remote access uses a live chat feature.
• Users have to be present so that they can view LEDs and change cables if necessary.
• Diagnostics can be run without a technician being present at the site.
• FAQs can be consulted more easily.

9. Which two troubleshooting techniques are suitable for both home networks and large corporate networks? (Choose two.)
• having a backup ISR
• running network monitoring applications
• documenting the troubleshooting process
• keeping a record of system upgrades and software versions
• keeping spare switches, routers, and other equipment available

10. Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
• The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

11. Identify two physical-layer network problems. (Choose two.)
• hardware failure
• software configuration
• devices not able to ping
• loose cable connections
• device driver configuration

12. Only one workstation on a particular network cannot reach the Internet. What is the first troubleshooting step if the divide-and-conquer method is being used?
• Check the NIC, and then check the cabling.
• Check the workstation TCP/IP configuration.
• Test all cables, and then test layer by layer up the OSI model.
• Attempt to Telnet, and then test layer by layer down the OSI model.

13. A PC is plugged into a switch and is unable to connect to the network. The UTP cable is suspected. What could be the problem?
• A straight-through cable is being used
• The connectors at both ends of the cable are RJ-45.
• The RJ-45 connectors are crimped onto the cable jacket.
• A crossover cable is being used.

14. Typically, help desk personnel assist end users in which two tasks? (Choose two.)
• identifying when the problem occurred
• determining if other users are currently logged into the computer
• updating network diagrams and documentation
• implementing the solution to the problem
• running a network baseline test
• determining the cost of fixing the problem

15. Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
• The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

16. What command is used to determine if a DNS server is providing name resolution?
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup
• tracert

17. Which ipconfig command requests IP configuration from a DHCP server?
• ipconfig
• ipconfig /all
• ipconfig /renew
• ipconfig /release

18. What should a network administrator do first after receiving a call from a user who cannot access the company web server?
• Reboot the web server.
• Replace the NIC of the computer.
• Ask the user to log off and log on again.
• Ask the user what URL has been typed and what error message displays.

19. What two items could be checked to verify connectivity between the router and the ISP? (Choose two.)
• router status page
• wireless card settings
• router operating system version
• local host operating system version
• connectivity status as indicated by LEDs

20. What command is used to determine the location of delay for a packet traversing the Internet?
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup
• ping
• tracert

21. When acting as a DHCP server, what three types of information can an ISR provide to a client? (Choose three.)
• physical address
• MAC address
• default gateway
• static IP address
• dynamic IP address
• DNS server address

22. A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable. After trying several configuration changes, the technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What troubleshooting technique does this represent?
• top-down
• bottom-up
• substitution
• trial-and-error
• divide-and-conquer

23. A technician is troubleshooting a security breach on a new wireless access point. Which three configuration settings make it easy for hackers to gain access? (Choose three.)
• configuring NAT
• broadcasting the SSID
• using open authentication
• enabling MAC address filters
• using the default internal IP address
• using DHCP to provide IP addresses

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 8 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
• It provides various views of possible attack paths.
• It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
• It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
• It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
• It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.

2. A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
• Trojan horse
• brute force
• ping of death
• SYN flooding

3. Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
• SPI
• DMZ
• ISR
• ISP

4. What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
• adware
• popups
• spyware
• tracking cookies

5. Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
• Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
• When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
• Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
• Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
• Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.

6. Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
• Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
• Only hard drives can be protected.
• Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
• Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.

7. What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
• activation of a popup stopper
• a change of the default IP address
• an update in the antivirus software definitions
• physically securing the cable between the access point and client

8. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?
• to require a user ID and password to access the router
• to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet
• to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router
• to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices

9. What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling

10. What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
• A DMZ is not supported.
• The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
• The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
• Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.

11. What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
• brute force
• spam
• spyware
• tracking cookies

12. What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
• server-based
• integrated
• personal
• appliance-based

13. During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
• by e-mail
• by phone
• in person
• through another person

14. What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

15. What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
• a large corporate environment
• a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
• a home environment that needs VPN access
• a smaller, less congested business environment

16. Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.

17. To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
• DMZ
• external
• internal
• a network other than the wired network

18. Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
• Periodically update anti-virus software.
• Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
• Periodically update the host operating system.
• Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
• Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
• Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.

19. While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse
• denial of service

20. Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)
• fishing
• vishing
• phishing
• spamming
• pretexting
• junk mailing

21. Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?
• It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
• It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
• It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
• tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
• consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
• responsible for determining the signal strength
• all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
• used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

2. What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
• Open
• PSK
• WEP
• EAP

3. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
• Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
• Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
• Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
• Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

4. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
• Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
• Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
• Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

5. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
• more secure
• longer range
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• easy and inexpensive to install
• ease of using licensed air space
• ease of adding additional devices

6. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
• encryption
• hacking block
• traffic filtering
• MAC address filtering
• authentication

7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
• connects two networks with a wireless link
• stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
• allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
• increases the strength of a wireless signal

8. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
• encrypt; authenticate users on
• filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
• identify the wireless network; compress data on
• create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

9. Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?
• transmits at much lower frequencies
• has higher power output
• transmits at much higher frequencies
• uses better encryption methods

10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
• The router supports encryption and authentication.
• The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
• The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
• The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

11. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
• speed
• security
• mobility
• reduced installation time
• allows users to share more resources
• not susceptible to interference from other devices

12. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
• created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
• created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
• created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
• created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

13. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
• the size of the building
• the number of solid interior walls in the building
• the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
• the encryption method used on the wireless network
• the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
• the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

14. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
• requires no authentication
• uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
• requires the use of an authentication server
• requires a mutually agreed upon password

15. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
• Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
• Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
• An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

16. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
• 8 bit
• 16 bit
• 32 bit
• 64 bit
• 128 bit

17. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
• cell
• antenna
• access point
• wireless bridge
• wireless client

18. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
• WEP
• WPA
• EAP
• ASCII
• pre-shared keys

19. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
• address filtering
• authentication
• broadcasting
• encryption
• passphrase encoding

20. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
• IEEE has approved the device.
• The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
• The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
• The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

21. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
• Network Mode
• Network Name (SSID)
• Radio Band
• Wide Channel
• Standard Channel
• SSID Broadcast

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 6 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
• 1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

2. What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
• protocol hierarchy
• protocol modeling
• protocol stack
• protocol layering

3. Which port number is used by SMTP?
• 20
• 21
• 25
• 26
• 110

4. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP

5. What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
• blog
• e-mail
• web mail
• instant messaging

6. An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
• The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
• The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
• The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
• The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

7. A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does www.cisco.com represent?
• the IP address of a web server
• a physical network address
• the closest router interface to the source
• the source IP address in the data transmission

8. What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• error-checking information

9. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3

10. Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
• IM
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• VoIP

11. What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
• data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
• application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

12. What type of server would use IMAP?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web

13. You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
• UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
• TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
• UDP
• FTP
• IP
• SMTP
• TCP

15. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3

16. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access
• Presentation

17. Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web

18. A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
• removes the IP header
• removes the TCP header
• passes data to the application layer
• removes the Ethernet header and trailer

19. Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• HTTP
• POP
• SMTP

20. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP

21. Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
• Uniform Resource Locator
• Network redirector server
• SNMP server
• DNS server

22. What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
• It breaks network communications into larger parts.
• It increases complexity.
• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

23. What information is contained in an IP header?
• source and destination IP addresses
• source and destination MAC addresses
• only destination IP and MAC addresses
• both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.16.4.4
• 192.168.5.5
• 224.6.6.6

2. Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
• 10.0.0.17
• 128.107.1.2
• 192.135.250.0
• 209.165.201.1

3. What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
• the MAC address of the sending host
• the MAC address of the destination host
• an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
• a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

4. What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
• MAC and IP addresses for the default router
• IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
• MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
• MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

5. What is one of the purposes of NAT?
• filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
• prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
• inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
• translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names

6. Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
• IP address of the destination host
• public gateway IP address of the ISP
• external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
• internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network

7. How large are IPv4 addresses?
• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 32 bits
• 64 bits
• 128 bits

8. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
• The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
• The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
• The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
• All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
• Only the DHCP server receives the message.

9. Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast

10. Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
• ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
• allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
• solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
• allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location

11. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
• a specific host
• a group of hosts
• the default gateway
• the network broadcast address

12. Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
• 175.124
• 35.4
• .4
• 124.35.4
• 175.124.35

13. How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
• 4
• 8
• 16
• 24

14. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

15. Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• RARP

16. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
• The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
• The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
• The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
• The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

17. Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.252

18. Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
• Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.

19. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

20. Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
• The router interface does not have a default gateway.
• The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
• The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
• The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

21. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 4 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Which definition describes the term Internet?
• a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
• a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
• a network of networks that connects countries around the world
• a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

2. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
• requires no preplanning
• aids in isolation of cabling problems
• protects cables from physical damage
• provides compliance with future standards
• provides a short-term solution for cable installation

3. What does the tracert command test?
• NIC functionality
• the ISP bandwidth
• the network path to a destination
• the destination application functionality

4. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
• ST
• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45

5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
• fast connections
• extra web space
• free Windows upgrade
• cheapest cost available to all users
• additional e-mail accounts
• replacement hardware at no cost

6. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

7. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

8. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
• analog technology
• cable modem technology
• digital subscriber line technology
• wireless technology

9. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and a home-based LAN

10. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
• to connect end users using cable technology
• to connect end users using analog technology
• to connect end users using wireless technology
• to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

11. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
• Download speeds and upload speeds are equal
• Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

12. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
• uses RJ-11 jacks
• uses RJ-45 jacks
• supports only data transmissions
• allows quick rearrangements of network connections
• forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
• crossover
• eight coax channels
• multimode fiber
• single-mode fiber
• straight-through

14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• between buildings
• in a home office network
• where EMI is an issue
• in a cable TV network
• inside a school building
• in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

15. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• installing cables in conduit
• having improper termination
• losing light over long distances
• installing low quality cable shielding
• using low quality cables or connectors

16. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
• hub
• bridge
• modem
• repeater
• ISR

17. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
• NOC
• ISP
• hop
• segment

18. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
• data security
• no loss of signal
• no electromagnetic interference
• reliable data communications

19. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
• an IP address
• file sharing enabled
• a network connection
• server services enabled
• access to an Internet service provider
• an address obtained directly from the RIR

20. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
• pinouts
• cable lengths
• connector color
• connector types
• cost per meter (foot)
• tensile strength of plastic insulator

21. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
• Internet LAN
• ISP backbone
• Internet gateways
• Internet providers
• Internet backbone

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
• ARP table
• routing table
• network table
• forwarding table

2. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
• a server hosted by the ISP
• the router interface closest to the computer
• a server managed by a central IT department
• the switch interface that connects to the computer

3. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
• It sends the data packet as it was received.
• It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
• It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
• It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
• type of cable used
• type of data transmission
• speed of transmission
• type of connector required
• maximum length of cable allowed

5. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
• They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
• They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
• They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
• They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
• They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

6. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
• It drops the frame.
• It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
• It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
• It returns the frame to the sender.

7. Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
• naming scheme
• IP addressing scheme
• length of cable runs
• physical location of networking devices
• specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

8. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
• detects transmission errors
• provides timing for transmission
• contains the start of frame delimiter
• indicates which protocol will receive the frame

9. If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
• dynamic route
• default route
• destination route
• default destination

10. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
• H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

11. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
• prevents collisions on a local network
• keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
• controls which hosts have access to the network
• controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

12. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• switch
• e-mail server
• application server
• wireless access point

13. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.

14. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source Ethernet address

15. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• WINS

16. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• server
• computer

17. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
• logical addresses only
• IP addresses only
• MAC addresses only
• broadcast addresses only

18. Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?
• flow control
• encapsulation
• encoding
• multicasting
• access method

19. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
• adds complexity to networks
• encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
• provides consistent interconnections across networks
• ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
• simplifies new product development

20. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
• It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
• It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
• It enables the user to share printers.
• It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

21. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
• modem
• switch
• router
• hub

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 2 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

2. Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)
• required hard disk space
• type of accelerated graphics card
• recommended amount of RAM
• printer requirements
• processor type and speed
• type of keyboard

3. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel

4. Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)
• Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
• Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
• Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
• Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
• Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.

5. Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)
• partition
• file system
• computer name
• IP address
• operating system

6. What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
• full access to source code
• software often available free
• structured development cycle
• can be expensive to purchase
• limits what end-user can do with code
• support normally user-based and often free

7. An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?
• clean install
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• virtualization

8. What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?
• Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
• A network administrator enters information on each computer.
• Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
• An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.

9. Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?
• CLI
• GUI
• redirector
• kernel translator

10. Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)
• closest server
• operating system
• IP address
• subnet mask
• default gateway
• network card driver

11. Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)
• Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
• A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
• User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
• A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
• Each partition requires a different file system type.

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 1 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)
• protects the computer from voltage surges
• provides backup power from an internal battery
• protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
• gives the user time to phone the electrical company
• gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
• provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

2. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
• dry and non humid conditions
• carpeted floor
• grounding strap
• uncluttered work space

3. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)
• CAD
• presentation
• spreadsheet
• word processing
• medical practice management
• contacts/scheduling management

4. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?
• RAM
• NIC
• video card
• sound card
• storage device

5. What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
• printer
• speakers
• flash drive
• external DVD
• external modem

6. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?
• bits
• pixels
• hertz
• bytes

7. Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?
• modem card
• controller card
• video card
• sound card
• network interface card

8. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?
• CPU
• surge suppressor
• motherboard
• hard drive

9. What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)
Mobility is increased.
• An external monitor can be used.
• Alternate connectivity options may be available.
• The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
• More wireless security options are available.

10. Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?
• RAM
• CPU
• video card
• sound card
• operating system

11. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two..
• usually a lower cost
• exact components may be specified
• extended waiting period for assembly
• adequate for performing most general applications
• suited for customers with special needs

12. What is a word processor?
• It is a physical computer component.
• It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
• It is a program that controls the computer resources.
• It is a functional part of an operating system.

13. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?
• Servers require more power and thus require more components.
• Servers should be accessible at all times.
• Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
• Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

14. Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)
operating system
• network
• laptop
• desktop
• Windows
• mainframe

15. How many values are possible using a single binary digit?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8
• 9
• 16

16. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?
• manually assigned by the operating system
• manually assigned by the administrator
• statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
• dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

17. How is a server different from a workstation computer?
• The server works as a standalone computer.
• The server provides services to clients.
• The workstation has fewer applications installed.
• The workstation has more users who attach to it.

18. If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
• Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
• Verify that all cables are connected properly.
• Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
• Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
• Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
• Reload the computer operating system.

19. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)
• Download and install the most current driver.
• Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
• Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
• Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
• Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

20. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?
• tape drive
• hard drive
• optical drive (DVD)
• floppy disk drive

21. What is the purpose of the ASCII code?
• translates bits into bytes
• interprets graphics digitally
• translates digital computer language into binary language
• represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits