CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 8 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose two.)
• specifying source addresses for authentication
• specifying internal hosts for NAT
• identifying traffic for QoS
• reorganizing traffic into VLANs
• filtering VTP packets

2. Which three statements are true concerning standard and extended ACLs? (Choose three.)
• Extended ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are filtered at the destination.
• Standard ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are filtered at the destination.
• Extended ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the destination if other traffic is to flow.
• Standard ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the destination if other traffic is to flow.
• Extended ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packets to pass through the network if placed near the source.
• Standard ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packets to pass through the network if placed near the source.

3. Which wildcard mask would match the host range for the subnet 192.16.5.32 /27?
• 0.0.0.32
• 0.0.0.63
• 0.0.63.255
• 0.0.0.31

4. A security administrator wants to secure password exchanges on the vty lines on all routers in the enterprise. What option should be implemented to ensure that passwords are not sent in clear text across the public network?
• Use Telnet with an authentication server to ensure effective authentication.
• Apply an access list on the router interfaces to allow only authorized computers.
• Apply an access list on the vty line to allow only authorized computers.
• Use only Secure Shell (SSH) on the vty lines.

5. Why are inbound ACLs more efficient for the router than outbound ACLs?
• Inbound ACLs deny packets before routing lookups are required.
• Inbound ACL operation requires less network bandwidth than outbound.
• Inbound ACLs permit or deny packets to LANs, which are typically more efficient than WANs.
• Inbound ACLs are applied to Ethernet interfaces, while outbound ACLs are applied to slower serial interfaces.

6. What can an administrator do to ensure that ICMP DoS attacks from the outside are mitigated as much as possible, without hampering connectivity tests initiated from the inside out?
• Create an access list permitting only echo reply and destination unreachable packets from the outside.
• Create an access list denying all ICMP traffic coming from the outside.
• Permit ICMP traffic from only known external sources.
• Create an access list with the established keyword at the end of the line.


7. Refer to the exhibit. The new security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from the Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is allowed to the Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1 on the Marketing router to implement the new security policy?
• access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
• access-list 165 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip any any
• access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 137 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
• access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 89 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www


8. Refer to the exhibit. Company policy for the network that is shown indicates the following guidelines:
1) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network, except host 192.168.3.77, should be able to reach the 192.168.2.0/24 network.
2) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network should be able to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
3) All other traffic originating from the 192.168.3.0 network should be denied.
Which set of ACL statements meets the stated requirements when they are applied to the Fa0/0 interface of router R2 in the inbound direction?
• access-list 101 deny ip any any
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
• access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
• access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
• access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255


9. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
• The new commands overwrite the current Managers ACL.
• The new commands are added to the end of the current Managers ACL.
• The new commands are added to the beginning of the current Managers ACL.
• An error appears stating that the ACL already exists.

10. What effect does the command reload in 30 have when entered into a router?
• If a router process freezes, the router reloads automatically.
• If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where an ACL is applied, the router reloads in 30 minutes.
• If a remote connection lasts for longer than 30 minutes, the router forces the remote user off.
• A router automatically reloads in 30 minutes.

11. Which two host addresses are included in the range specified by 172.16.31.64 0.0.0.31? (Choose two.)
• 172.16.31.64
• 172.16.31.77
• 172.16.31.78
• 172.16.31.95
• 172.16.31.96


12. Refer to the exhibit. The following commands were entered on RTB.
RTB(config)# access-list 4 deny 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.15
RTB(config)# access-list 4 permit any
RTB(config)# interface serial 0/0/0
RTB(config-if)# ip access-group 4 in
Which addresses do these commands block access to RTB?
• 192.168.20.17 to 192.168.20.31
• 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.31
• 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.32
• 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.33


13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure an access list that will allow the management host with an IP address of 192.168.10.25/24 to be the only host to remotely access and configure router RTA. All vty and enable passwords are configured on the router. Which group of commands will accomplish this task?
• Router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp any 192.168.10.25 0.0.0.0 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip any any
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
Router(config-if)# int fa0/0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.25 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 10 deny any
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)#access-group 10 in
• Router(config)# access-list 86 permit host 192.168.10.25
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# access-class 86 in
• Router(config)# access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.10.25 any eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 125 deny ip any any
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 125 i

14. ACL logging generates what type of syslog message?
• unstable network
• warning
• informational
• critical situation


15. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notes a significant increase in the amount of traffic entering the network from the ISP. The administrator clears the access-list counters. After a few minutes, the administrator again checks the access-list table. What can be concluded from the most recent output shown?
• A small amount of HTTP trafic is an indication that the web server was not configured correctly.
• A larger amount of POP3 traffic (compared with SMTP traffic) indicates that there are more POP3 email clients than SMTP clients in the enterprise.
• A large amount of ICMP traffic is being denied at the interface, which can be an indication of a DoS attack.
• A larger amount of email traffic (compared with web traffic) is an indication that attackers mainly targeted the email server.


16. Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should be able to access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?
• access-list 42 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 42 permit any
• access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 56 permit any
• access-list 61 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.0
access-list 61 permit any
• access-list 87 deny ip any 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 87 permit ip any

17. Which ACL permits host 10.220.158.10 access to the web server 192.168.3.244?
• access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.220.158.10 eq 80 host 192.168.3.224
• access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80
• access-list 101 permit host 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80
• access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 eq 80


18. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of a company needs to configure the router RTA to allow its business partner (Partner A) to access the web server located in the internal network. The web server is assigned a private IP address, and a static NAT is configured on the router for its public IP address. Finally, the administrator adds the ACL. However, Partner A is denied access to the web server. What is the cause of the problem?
• Port 80 should be specified in the ACL.
• The public IP address of the server, 209.165.201.5, should be specified as the destination.
• The ACL should be applied on the s0/0 outbound interface.
• The source address should be specified as 198.133.219.0 255.255.255.0 in the ACL.

19. Traffic from the 64.104.48.0 to 64.104.63.255 range must be denied access to the network. What wildcard mask would the network administrator configure in the access list to cover this range?
• 0.0.15.255
• 0.0.47.255
• 0.0.63.255
• 255.255.240.0


20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add the command deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log to R3. After adding the command, the administrator verifies the change using the show access-list command. What sequence number does the new entry have?
• 10, and all other items are shifted down to the next sequence number
• 50
• 60

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module Final 1 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Which two statements are true about local applications? (Choose two.)
• They run on the network.
• An example of a local application is e-mail.
• They are accessed from a remote computer.
• They are stored on the local hard disk.
• They run on the computer where they are installed.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The security policy of an organization allows employees to connect to the office intranet from their homes. Which type of security policy is this?
• acceptable use
• incident handling
• network maintenance
• remote access

3. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
• a specific host
• a group of hosts
• all hosts on the network
• the network broadcast address

4. What two pieces of information should a help desk technician document while troubleshooting connectivity issues with an end user? (Choose two.)
• the CPU clock speed of the computer
• the number of network jacks that are in the room
• if the user can ping the default gateway address
• if the word processing software is installed correctly
• whether the PC uses dynamic or static IP addressing

5. Which two transport layer protocols are used to transfer messages between hosts? (Choose two.)
• DHCP
• FTP
• SMTP
• TCP
• UDP

6. What is the purpose of a router?
• to forward broadcasts to all interfaces so that all hosts receive them
• to maintain a table of individual host addresses
• to select the best path to reach remote networks
• to physically connect multiple hosts that belong to the same network ?

7. What must be identical on all devices in a WLAN for successful wireless communication between the devices?
• SSID
• antenna type
• network mode
• wireless NIC driver

8. What two commands can be used to form a new binding if client information does not agree with the DHCP client table? (Choose two.)
• ipconfig /release
• ipconfig /all
• ipconfig /flushdns
• ipconfig /renew
• ipconfig

9. Which wireless protocol is used for encryption?
• EAP
• Open
• PSK
• WEP

10. Select three statements that correctly describe how DHCP services may be provided. (Choose three.)
• An integrated router provides IP configurations for most ISPs.
• An integrated router can act as both DHCP server and DHCP client.
• A home PC using a static IP address obtained that address from a DHCP server.
• Most home network integrated routers receive an IP configuration directly from their ISP.
• A variety of devices can act as DHCP servers, as long as they run DHCP service software.
• A home PC that is unable to find a DHCP server defaults to the static IP address of 192.168.1.1.

11. Refer to the graphic. What feature can be installed on the Linksys integrated router to convert private IP addresses to Internet-routable addresses?
• authentication
• DHCP
• encryption
• firewall
• NAT
• WEP

12. Which two causes of networking problems are related to the physical layer? (Choose two.)
• disconnected cables
• improper operation of cooling fans
• incorrect MAC address
• incorrect default gateway
• incorrect subnet mask

13. Which Windows command is used to display the configured IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway?
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup
• tracert

14. What are the two possible values for a digital bit? (Choose two.)
• 1
• A
• F
• #
• 9

15. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel

16. What is the name for the contract between a customer and an ISP that specifies requirements for uptime and service response time?
• DSL
• IAB
• NAP
• SLA

17. What is the default subnet mask for an IP address of 64.100.19.14?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

18. Refer to the graphic. Assume that the command output is from a wireless DHCP client that is connected to a Linksys integrated router. What can be deduced from the output?
• The wireless connection is good.
• The WEP key or SSID needs to be checked.
• The DHCP configuration on the router needs to be checked.
• The wireless NIC driver or the NIC itself needs to be reinstalled.

19. Which attribute must be the same for wireless devices on one network to be able to communicate with devices on a different network?
• DNS server
• MAC address
• default gateway
• operating system
• wireless equipment vendor

20. Which term is associated with logical addressing?
• IP addresses
• port addresses
• physical addresses
• Media Access Control addresses

21. Which type of computer has an integrated mouse?
• desktop
• laptop
• mainframe
• server
• pocket PC

22. What is an ISP?
• It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
• It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
• It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.
• It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

23. Which wireless component allows wireless clients to gain access to a wired network?
• PDA
• STA
• access point
• wireless bridge

24. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the web server at 209.165.200.226/27. Based on the provided output, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
• PC1 is not plugged in to RTR1.
• Port 80 is already in use on PC1.
• No DNS server is configured on PC1.
• PC1 is configured with an incorrect IP address and default gateway.

25. What will be one result of using a wireless infrastructure when designing the communications infrastructure for a new building?
• Wireless devices will be easy to add or relocate.
• Infrastructure installation will be difficult and expensive.
• There will be less interference from outside electronic sources.
• Data transmitted over wireless networks will be more secure than when transmitted over wired networks.

26. TCP/IP data transmission between the source and destination host is de-encapsulated in four steps:

A. The TCP header is removed.
B. Bits are decoded and the destination MAC address is recognized.
C. The IP header is removed and the contents are passed to the next layer.
D. The Ethernet header and trailer are removed.

What is the correct sequence of these steps?
• A, B, C, D
• A, C, B, D
• B, C, D, A
• B, D, C, A
• C, A, B, D

27. Which value represents the host portion of IP address 128.107.10.11 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?
• .10
• .10.11
• 128.107
• .107.10.11
• 128.107.10

28. A computer joins the network and announces itself to all hosts on the LAN. What type of message does the computer send out?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast

29. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device

30. For the second time in a week, workstations on a LAN are not able to log into the server. The technician fixed the problem the first time, but cannot remember the steps taken to solve it. What aspect of the troubleshooting process has the technician neglected?
• identifying the problem
• asking end-users questions
• documenting the troubleshooting process
• using structured techniques to solve a problem

31. What are two advantages of purchasing a custom-built computer? (Choose two.)
• usually a lower cost
• no waiting period for assembly
• user can specify higher performance components
• supports higher-end graphics and gaming applications
• fewer components to replace

32. How do ISPs obtain public IP addresses?
• They create the addresses themselves.
• They obtain the addresses from the home PCs
• They obtain the addresses from the Internet registry
• They obtain the addresses from the RFC.

33. Which installation option should be chosen when the current operating system is too damaged to work properly?
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• clean install
• virtualization

34. What describes the external IP address that is obtained by a router through a cable or DSL modem?
• a public address that is obtained from ICANN
• a private address that is manually configured by the administrator
• a public address that is obtained through DHCP from the ISP
• a private address that converts to a public address on the internal LAN

35. Refer to the exhibit. What default gateway address will be assigned to PC1 if access to remote resources is needed?
• 192.31.7.3
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.253
• A default gateway is not necessary.

36. Which picture shows a USB port on a PC?
• deze moet je toch echt weten..

37. Which Windows PC command line utility can be used to discover the path that a packet takes to reach a destination?
• ping
• netstat
• tracert
• nslookup
• ipconfig

38. What are three examples of logical configuration information used when planning a network implementation? (Choose three.)
• size of broadcast domains
• naming scheme
• length of cable runs
• IP addressing scheme
• physical device location
• location of power outlets

39. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)
• MAC address
• IP address
• kernel
• shell
• subnet mask

40. What is the purpose of pop-up blocker software?
• It detects and removes spyware.
• It detects and removes viruses.
• It prevents the display of advertisement windows.
• It removes unwanted e-mail.

41. Refer to the exhibit. A user on Host1 requests a web page from the web server. Which diagram is accurate for the encapsulation of the traffic that is sent from the user to the web server?
• ONBEKEND> Waarschijnlijk D

42. For devices that do not autosense, which connection requires a crossover cable?
• hub port to router port
• PC to hub port
• PC to switch port
• PC port to PC port

43. After attaching four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID and setting authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all PCs that are connected to the switch and WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device prior to connecting it to the Internet. What type of network device includes all of the described features?
• switch
• ISR router
• firewall appliance
• standalone wireless access point

44. Bottom-up troubleshooting begins at which layer of the OSI model?
• network layer
• physical layer
• data link layer
• transport layer
• application layer

45. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?
• DSL
• dial-up
• satellite
• cell modem
• cable modem

46. Which network design layer provides a connection point for end user devices to the network?
• access
• core
• distribution
• network

47. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is commonly used to exchange data between a PDA and a computer?
• FM
• radar
• infrared
• ultraviolet

48. How does a crossover cable make it possible for two "like devices" (for example, two switches) to communicate?
• The transmit pins are disconnected and only the receive pins are used.
• The transmit pins on one device are connected to the transmit pins on the other device.
• The receive pins on one device are connected to the receive pins on the other device.
• The transmit pins on one device are connected to the receive pins on the other device.

49. A company has a web server that must be accessible to both external and internal clients. Which security policy best practice should be followed to maximize security of the server?
• Place the web server in a DMZ.
• Keep the web server on the external network.
• Configure a firewall device to serve as the web server.
• Locate the web server in the server farm of the internal network.

50. Which statement accurately describes what network devices do in the distribution layer of the three layer design model?
• They interconnect individual hosts.
• They interconnect multiple companies.
• They interconnect local network segments.
• They interconnect the company network to the ISP.

51. An administrator is troubleshooting a network problem that involves the inability of users to reach Internet sites. During troubleshooting, the administrator is able to successfully ping web sites by their IP address, but pings to domain names are unsuccessful. Which service is most likely at fault?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• NAT

52. What are two examples of peripheral input devices? (Choose two.)
• external modem
• barcode reader
• digital camera
• plotter
• printer

Planning An Office Network

An workplace network is vital for any company that wishes to act in the contemporary commercial planet. It enables staff to work together on projects from their personal workstations, and allows a central location to shop all files and to print from (a file-print server). For any network to execute at it's peak function, there is a lot of prerequisites that require to be met prior to installing and using the network.

The most essential prerequisite is for the networking specifications to be determined. Queries that require to be answered contain:

• how a lot of computers (i.e. people) will be using the network?


• is there any remote access requirements (vpn)?


• what servers and other network attached devices are needed?


• who will manage and keep the network?


• are their specialised specifications for various departments?


• how is the connection to the internet to be maintained?


• is there a requirement for servers facing the world wide web - mail server, internet server, etc?

Some estimation for the development of the enterprise requirements to be included in the style as it's less expensive to add in the extra needs throughout the initial create rather than tacking it on later.

As soon as all of these questions have been answered then the network can be designed and a purchasing list can be prepared. Whilst there are a number of excellent high quality network providers, most businesses decide on Cisco merchandise for their networks. There are several positive aspects to employing Cisco:

• Cisco has really great support programmes, and can supply support 24x7 if essential.


• A lot of personal computer professionals have the standard Cisco qualification - CCNA (Cisco Certified Network Associate), and much more these days have larger qualifications from Cisco - CCNP or CCIE. This tends to make it effortless to employ new employees if required to support the network from day 1.


• Although Cisco is not the least expensive, over the longer term their gear tends to execute greater than other more affordable brands.


• Cisco produces network elements for all aspects of the network - firewall, routers, switches, VOIP, and so forth.

It is advisable, when the new network is prepared for installation, to set up it in stages to get rid of outages to other aspects of the enterprise. This assumes that there is an current network that is being replaced, but is nonetheless a good notion when a new workplace is becoming set up. This will enable proper testing of each and every section of the network ahead of the whole thing is installed.

Even though installing and operating an office network is not a activity for an individual with no very good laptop skills, it is very attainable for an individual with a excellent understanding of computers, as well as a excellent understanding of the workplace's specifications to be able to perform this activity themselves.  There are a lot of accountants, lawyers, secretaries, and other office workers who look right after their organization's network.

Neil Hunt is an IT specialist with around 15 years of encounter in a variety of different IT areas, including networking, Unix and security. His IT consultancy can be located at [http://www.huntcorp.com.au/] and his personal weblog can be found at [http://www.groverjones.com/]

Cisco CCNP / BSCI Certification: Introduction To ISIS Terminology

When you're studying to pass the BSCI exam and earn your CCNP certification, you're going to be introduced to ISIS. ISIS and OSPF are both link-state protocols, but ISIS works quite differently from OSPF. You must master these details in order to earn your CCNP.

One of the major differences between OSPF and ISIS will be evident to you when you first begin your BSCI exam studies, and that is the terminology. ISIS uses terms that no other protocol you've studied to date uses, and learning these new terms is the first step to BSCI and CCNP exam success.

First off, what does "IS" stand for in "ISIS"? It stands for "Intermediate System", which sounds like a group of routers. As opposed to Autonomous Systems, which are logical groups of routers, an Intermediate System is simply a single router. That's it.

You'll also become familiar with End Systems, referred to in ISIS as an "ES". The End System is simply an end host.

ISIS and OSPF both use the concept of areas, but ISIS takes a different approach to this concept. ISIS routers use three different types of routing levels, according to the area a router has been placed in. Level 2 routers are connected only to the backbone and serve as a transit device between non-backbone areas. Level 1 routers are totally internal to a non-backbone area.

ISIS uses both Level-1 and Level-2 Hellos, meaning that the two types of routers just mentioned cannot form an adjacency. Luckily for us, there is a middle ground, and that is the Level 1-2 router. These routers connect non-backbone areas to backbone areas. L1-L2 routers keep two separate routing tables, one for L1 routing and another for L2 routing. This is the default setting for a Cisco router, and L1-L2 routers can form adjacencies with both L1 and L2 routers.

Part of the challenge of learning ISIS is getting used to the differences between ISIS and OSPF. Keep studying the terminology, master one concept at a time, and soon you'll be a master of ISIS and a CCNP to boot!

Chris Bryant, CCIE #12933, is the owner of The Bryant Advantage, home of over 100 free certification exam tutorials, including Cisco CCNA certification test prep articles. His exclusive Cisco CCNA study guide and Cisco CCNA training is also available!

Visit his blog and sign up for Cisco Certification Central, a daily newsletter packed with CCNA, Network+, Security+, A+, and CCNP certification exam practice questions! A free 7-part course, "How To Pass The CCNA", is also available, and you can attend an in-person or online CCNA boot camp with The Bryant Advantage!