Cisco ccna certification is important in the industry

There are numerous institutes today that train students to enter the IT industry and do extremely well.

The IT industry that is growing in demand has opened up a lot of job opportunities and has widened people’s horizons as they have provided a large number of people with various employment offers in different spheres and are continuing to do so. There are different institutes that train students to understand the finer nuances of this industry but one that has become a household name and is extremely popular due to the quality of training it provides is jetking. Ccna from jetking is considered to be a big deal as it has a lot of importance and weight in the industry.

A number of people wish to get ccna from jetking as it broadens their horizon and helps them understand that they are one of the best in the industry as simply due to the certification they have from jetking, a large number of firms and companies pick them up. This is because the quality provided by jetking is well known and the qualities imbibed in the students passing out from here are something most of the employers want to see in their employees.

Those receiving cisco ccna certification from jetking are at an advantage since this is something that is considered to be highly beneficial in the industry. These students receive practical training also and this is extremely useful since they understand the finer nuances of the industry before entering the same itself. They become fully equipped to face any situation and handle or overcome any hurdle or challenge that comes in their path.

Those with cisco ccna certification from jetking can be assured of job placements in some of the best firms and companies before they pass out. This is because of the 100% job guaranty scheme that is effectively followed by jetking. They see to it that all their students have a secure job and this is extremely beneficial since the students get a readymade foothold in the industry and they get a break that many crave for. This is something that give a lot of benefits to students.

http://www.trainsignal.com/blog/webinars?utm_source=YouTube&utm_medium=Social%20Media&utm_campaign=Webinars In this free on-demand webinar, CCIE Joe Rinehart...

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Cisco ccna certification from jetking has assured practical training

Being good at what you do is not the only thing that matters today.

What is also important that you get trained from the right places and get certifications that matter and counts and will be useful to you in the long run too. This is something that is applicable to every sector and industry and the IT industry that is thriving today and is seeing a boom is no different. A large number of people want to enter this industry and there are numerous institutes that have come up to train these students as well. However if one can receive the cisco ccna certification, they will definitely be at an advantage as they can easily get placed at known and reputed companies.

There are numerous institutes that have come up to train people who wish to join the IT stream and one of them is jetking. Training from jetking is highly beneficial since they provide cisco ccna certification to those who train with them and this is extremely useful. The best part off training here is that they have excellent standard and quality and are known to be the best to provide such training in the industry and companies prefer students passing out from jetking since it is a name in itself and the standard provided is better than many others.

Ccna from jetking has numerous advantages. Jetking makes sure that their students are not just limited to the bookish knowledge but have a lot of freedom and exposure otherwise and they see to it that their students receive practical training so that they understand the finer nuances of all that they learn and can use the same effectively. This helps the students to ready themselves for the challenges they will face once they enter the industry.

Receiving ccna from jetking is a notch above the rest since all those who receive this training from jetking are assured of good jobs before they finish their training since jetking has complete placement schemes and ensures that all their students are well placed in the industry thus giving them a strong foothold in the same.

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CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Designing and Supporting Computer Networks

1. What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
• VPNs
• high-bandwidth paths to servers
• redundancy
• wireless management

2. When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
• securing the network devices
• implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
• applying security to resources accessed by internal users
• applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network

3. What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?
• hub
• router
• switch
• firewall appliance

4. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis

5. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches shown?
• provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
• provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
• provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
• provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
• Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
• Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
• Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router interface s0/0/0.
• All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
• Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.

8. What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
• tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
• providing PoE to the wireless clients
• distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
• serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN

9. A company lists this equipment in their network design:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
• Catalyst 4503 switches
• Cisco 1841 router
• Catalyst 6509 switches
• lightweight access points
• Catalyst 2960 switches

10. What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for availability?
• CIDR support
• fast convergence
• timed updates
• VLSM suppor

11. Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
• availability
• performance
• scalability
• security

12. What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
• dedicated
• cell switched
• packet switched
• circuit switched

13. What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
• network layer functionality
• redundant power availability
• route summarization
• SNMP
• switch clustering
• inter-VLAN routing

14. Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
• PoE
• VLANs
• high-density routing
• packet filtering
• rapidly converging routing protocols
• QoS traffic classification and marking

15. Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?
• Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
• As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
• Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
• When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.

16. What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the Distribution layer?
• It is limited to copper connections.
• It does not support QoS.
• It does not support voice VLAN capability.
• It does not support route summarization.

17. An automobile sales company is establishing a new, small sales showroom in a downtown area. To update the inventory database, the new sales office will need a WAN connection to the headquarters that is located in the suburban area. The WAN connection should be around a 4 Mb/s connection. Which WAN service will provide the most economical approach to meet the requirement?
• DSL
• ATM
• T1 line
• Frame Relay

18. Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the enterprise headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network
• administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the backup Frame Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is allowed. Which statement is true about the routing configuration on branch office edge routers?
• The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.

19. Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
• use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
• type of routing protocols
• location of existing wired clients
• coverage
• position of MDF

20. Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
• Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
• Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
• Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
• Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a switch or router

21. A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for an organization. The designer recommends adding network security devices in front of the server farm, although network security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise Edge for two years. What type of attack can be effectively prevented with this recommendation?
• virus attack
• internal attack
• Internet attack
• phishing attack

22. What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?
• provides QoS classification and marking
• implements a fast-converging routing protocol
• uses routed interconnections between devices
• aggregates traffic and performs route summarization

23. A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters of an organization and its branch offices. In this context, what is one advantage of choosing Frame Relay over a T1 line?
• more secure
• flexible bandwidth
• shared media across the link
• efficiency with fixed length packet size

24. on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones?(Choose two.)
• voice VLAN capable switch
• autonomous AP
• PoE switch
• Cisco wireless LAN controller
• 2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
• lightweight access points

25. When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
• business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
• location and placement of firewalls
• voice-level quality of service
• security policy requirements

CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 1 Exam Version 4.0 Designing and Supporting Computer Networks

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly describe the benefits of the network access layer design that is shown? (Choose two.)
• If host A sends a broadcast message, only hosts in VLAN10 receive the broadcast frame.
• If host A attempts to transmit data at the same time as another host, only hosts in VLAN10 are affected by the collision.
• Segmenting all voice traffic on a separate VLAN facilitates the implementation of QoS.
• VLANs improve network performance by facilitating the use of route summarization.
• VLANs at the access layer help guarantee network availability by facilitating load balancing.

2. What kind of ACL inspects outbound UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic and allows inbound access only to traffic that belongs to these established sessions?
• dynamic ACL
• time-based ACL
• reflexive ACL
• lock and key ACL

3. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the ACL shown have on network traffic, assuming that it is correctly applied to the interface?
• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 is denied.
• All TCP traffic is denied to and from network 172.16.0.0.
• All Telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination is denied.
• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network is denied.
• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network is denied to any other network.

4. Which statement is true about a DMZ in a traditional network firewall design?
• A DMZ is designed to provide service for external access but not for internal access.
• Servers in the DMZ provide limited information that can be accessed from external networks.
• User access to the DMZ from the Internet and the internal network usually is treated the same way.
• All servers in the enterprise network should be located in a DMZ because of enhanced security measures.

5. Which two items in a physical WLAN design can be identified through a site survey? (Choose two.)
• the types of antennas that are required
• the encryption techniques that are required
• the access point hardware that is required
• the different levels of access that are required
• the connection reliability that is required

6. A network designer is creating a new network. The design must offer enough redundancy to provide protection against a single link or device failure, yet must not be too complex or expensive to implement. What topology would fill these needs?
• star
• full mesh
• partial mesh
• extended star
• hub and spoke

7. What are two mechanisms that provide redundancy for server farm implementations? (Choose two.)
• host intrusion prevention systems
• virtual private networks
• network intrusion prevention systems
• Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
• Hot Standby Routing Protocol

8. In a well-designed, high-availability network, which device significantly affects the most users if a failure occurs?
• desktop PC of the user
• large switch in the network core layer
• large switch in the network distribution layer
• small workgroup switch in the network access layer

9. Which three statements describe the functions of the Cisco hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
• Route summarization is not necessary at the core and distribution layers.
• The distribution layer is responsible for traffic filtering and isolating failures from the core.
• Two goals of the core layer are 100 percent uptime and maximizing throughput.
• The access layer provides a means of connecting end devices to the network.
• The distribution layer distributes network traffic directly to end users.
• The core layer usually employs a star topology.

10. What address can be used to summarize only networks 172.16.0.0/24, 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, and 172.16.3.0/24?
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.254.0

11. Refer to the exhibit. If the firewall module has been correctly configured using best practices for network security, which statement is true about the security design for the network?
• Servers in the network are not protected from internal attacks.
• Servers in the DMZ are protected from internal and external attacks.
• Servers in the server farm are protected from internal and external attacks.
• Traffic from the external networks is not able to access the servers in the DMZ.

12. Which Cisco IOS function can be configured at the distribution layer to filter unwanted traffic and provide traffic management?
• virus protection
• spyware protection
• VPNs
• access control lists

13. What is true about implementing a centralized server farm topology?
• requires direct cabling from the MPOE to enhance the performance of servers
• requires the addition of high-capacity switches to each workgroup
• provides defined entry and exit points so that filtering and securing traffic is easier
• allows for placement of workgroup servers at the access layer

14. What are three ways to ensure that an unwanted user does not connect to a wireless network and view the data? (Choose three.)
• Disable SSID broadcasting.
• Configure filters to restrict IP addresses.
• Use authentication between clients and the wireless device.
• Use NetBIOS name filtering between clients and the wireless device.
• Configure strong encryption such as WPA.
• Use a WEP compression method.

15. Centralizing servers in a data center server farm can provide which benefit over a distributed server environment?
• It keeps client-to-server traffic local to a single subnet.
• Servers located in a data center require less bandwidth.
• It is easier to filter and prioritize traffic to and from the data center.
• Server farms are not subject to denial of service attacks.

16. What network connection would be most cost efficient while still meeting the security and connectivity needs of this teleworker?
• dedicated leased line connection with a dialup backup link
• Frame Relay connection with a DSL backup link
• DSL VPN connection with a dialup backup link
• ATM connection with a DSL VPN backup link
• DSL connection with no backup link

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two devices are part of the access design layer? (Choose two.)
• Edge2
• ISP4
• BR4
• FC-AP
• FC-CPE-1
• FC-ASW-2

18. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
• Frames from Host 1 are dropped, but no other action is taken.
• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down, and a log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, but a log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 are forwarded, and the mac-address table is updated.

19. Which two statements are true regarding network convergence? (Choose two.)
• In a large network, using the EIGRP or OSPF routing protocols rather than RIPv2 may improve convergence time.
• Using STP at the core layer improves convergence time by allowing the use of redundant links between devices.
• Route summarization improves convergence time by minimizing the size of the routing table.
• A full mesh topology improves convergence time by allowing load balancing.
• ACLs can be configured to improve convergence time.

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
• interface fa0/0, inbound
• interface fa0/0, outbound
• interface fa0/1, inbound
• interface fa0/1, outbound

21. Refer to the exhibit. The server broadcasts an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what is the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 contains the broadcast and replies with the MAC address of the next-hop router.
• Switch_A replies with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B continuously flood the message onto the network.
• Switch_B forwards the broadcast request and replies with the Router_1 address.

22. The ability to connect securely to a private network over a public network is provided by which WAN technology?
• DSL
• Frame Relay
• ISDN
• PSTN
• VPN

23. Which two considerations are valid when designing access layer security?(Choose two.)
• In a large wireless network, the most efficient method to secure the WLAN is MAC address filtering.
• DoS attacks are normally launched against end-user PCs and can be mitigated by installing personal firewalls on all company PCs.
• SSH is more secure than Telnet to administer network devices.
• Disabling unused ports on the switches helps prevent unauthorized access to the network.
• All Telnet passwords are at least 6 characters long.

24. What are two best practices in wireless LAN design to ensure secure wireless access to the corporate network? (Choose two.)
• Configure APs for broadcast SSID.
• Place APs as far apart as possible.
• Use a separate WLAN for employees.
• Configure WPA.
• Use wireless routers in all IDFs.

25. Which three functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• summarizing routes from the access layer
• allowing end users to access the local network
• providing the gateway of last resort for core layer devices
• preserving bandwidth at the access layer by filtering network functions
• isolating network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer
• utilizing redundant links for load balancing to increase available bandwidth

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module Final Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to activate looped paths throughout the network
• to determine the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode


2. Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
• Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
• No host can reach any other host.
• Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
• All hosts can reach each other.


3. Refer to the exhibit. A company has recently installed a new switch (S2) into their network.After several minutes, the network administrator notices that the new VLAN information is not being propagated to the new switch. Given the show vtp status command output, what is the possible problem that prevents the information from being received by the new switch?
• VTP version mismatch
• VTP domain name mismatch
• VTP revision number mismatch
• Time synchronization problems


4. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
• There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
• There is a network statement missing.
• Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.
• The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
• /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

5. What will be the two wildcard masks required in an extended access list statement that blocks traffic to host 192.168.5.45 from the 172.16.240.0/27 network? (Choose two.)
• 0.0.0.0 5
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 0.0.31.255
• 255.255.255.240
• 0.0.0.31


6. Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the Null0 route for the 128.107.0.0 network?
• a child route that is defined
• a parent route that is defined and sourced from a physical interface
• a summary route for advertising purposes, not an actual path
• the result of the no auto-summary command on a router


7. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16


8. Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
• The IP address is already in use.
• The technician is using a network address.
• The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26
• The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

9. Which statement is accurate about the CIR in Frame Relay?
• It is important to purchase a CIR that matches the highest bandwidth requirements of the enterprise.
• The CIR can be no lower than the port speed of the local loop.
• The CIR defines the contracted maximum rate available from the service provider on the Frame Relay circuit
• It is possible to burst over the CIR if bandwidth is available.


10. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is enabled and the network has completely converged. Which two routers will be designated as DROTHER routers? (Choose two.)
• R1
• R2
• R3
• R4

11. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.


12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.
• A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
• A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

13. If a modem is being used to connect to an ISP, which WAN connection type is being used?
• leased line
• cell switched
• circuit switched
• packet switched


14. Refer to the exhibit. All routes in the exhibit are available to a router. Which two routes will be placed into the routing table? (Choose two.)
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

15. A network administrator wants to deny responses to ping requests. Which ACL statement denies ping responses while not affecting other traffic?
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 80
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 20
• access-list 123 deny tcp any any eq 21
• access-list 123 deny icmp any any echo-reply
• access-list 101 deny tcp any any established


16. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
• R1
• R2
• R3
• ISP


17. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
• 192.168.13.4/30
• 192.168.13.5/30
• 192.168.13.7/30
• 192.168.13.58/30
• 192.168.13.61/27
• 192.168.13.63/27

18. Which two statements are true about the native VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
• It requires a special VLAN ID tag.
• It is unable to be changed to a different VLAN.
• Untagged traffic slows the switching process down
• The native VLAN defaults to VLAN 1 on Cisco Catalyst switches.
• Untagged frames that are received on a trunk become members of this VLAN


19. What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
• feasible distance of the successor
• reported distance of the successor
• feasible distance of the feasible successor
• reported distance of the feasible successor


20. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?
• RB has the lowest priority value.
• RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.
• RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.
• RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

21. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
• define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets
• add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic
• deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
• connect remote locations directly to the intranet
• configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
• deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

22. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
• Router(config-router)# null 0 route
• Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
• Router(config-router)# no auto-summary


23. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
• Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
• Router B has a fully converged topology table.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

24. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
• Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.

25. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.
• RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
• Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
• RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
• RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.
• RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.


26. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts represent the result of DR and BDR elections in this OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• RTC will be the DR of 10.5.0.0/30
• RTD will be the BDR of 10.5.0.0/30.
• RTD will be the DR of 10.4.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the BDR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTB will be the DR of 10.7.0.0/28.
• RTA will be the BDR of 10.4.0.0/28.

27. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
• LCP tests the quality of the link.
• LCP manages compression on the link
• Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
• NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
• With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

28. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
• faster communication with server farms
• stronger security against malicious attacks
• faster communication with Internet destinations
• enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links


29. Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down
• A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.
• Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
• Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
• Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

30. A sales representative is using a wireless connection to make a VoIP call. Which protocol will be used to transport the voice packets?
• TCP
• UDP
• PPP
• HDLC

31. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
• VPN
• Frame Relay
• PPP with CHAP authentication
• PPP with PAP authentication

32. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192


33. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
• no set loopback
• incorrect subnet mask on R2
• incompatible bandwidth
• incorrect IP address on R1
• incompatible encapsulation


34. Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table?
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.10.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/2] via 10.10.20.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/3] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0
• R 10.10.4.0/24 [120/1] via 10.10.30.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet1/0


35. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
• The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.
• The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
• The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.
• The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
• The outside interface has not been defined on R1.


36. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose two.)
• A packet with a destination IP address of 172.20.1.14 will exit the router via the Serial 0/1/0n interface.
• The default administrative distance for EIGRP has been changed.
• Network 172.20.1.4 can be reached through two possible routes of equal cost.
• The addresses on this network were created using VLSM.
• The router connected to Serial 0/1/1 is advertising four separate routes through EIGRP to this router.


37. Refer to the exhibit. Internet access is crucial for the company network shown. Internet access is provided by two ISPs. ISP1 is the primary provider and ISP2 is the backup provider. The network administrator configures BorderR as the border router so that in normal operations, all Internet traffic goes through ISP1. However, if the link to ISP1 fails, then BorderR will automatically forward Internet traffic to ISP2. The administrator configures two default routes:
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.100.1 200
BorderR(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1
However, when the administrator issued the show ip route command to verify the configuration, only the second default route is in the routing table. Why is the first default route not showing?
• The first configuration command overwrites the second command.
• The first default route will be installed into the routing table if there is traffic with an IP address that is destined for the 192.168.100.0 network.
• This is expected because the link to ISP1 is active. If the link to ISP1 goes down, then the first default route will be installed into the routing table.
• The first default route cannot be installed into the routing table unless the administrator manually disables the second default route with the no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.1.1 command.

38. Which bandwidth allocation technique minimizes bandwidth waste by reallocating unused time slices to communicating users?
• VPN
• NCP
• TDM
• STP
• STDM


39. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
• VTP V2 mode is disabled.
• SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
• The number of existing VLANs does not match.
• The configuration revision number does not match.

40. What are two ways VLAN memberships can be created in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• manually configuring the switch ports to be part of a VLAN
• allowing the user to choose a specific VLAN through a GUI menu
• configuring the switch to allow VLAN membership based on NetBIOS association
• implementing an access list that specifies which devices are placed into specific VLANs.
• associating MAC addresses to specific VLANs in a VLAN management policy server database
• manually configuring the host devices to be part of a VLAN

41. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
• The key passes between routers in plain text.
• The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
• The key passes between routers in encrypted form.
• The key is never transmitted.
• The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

42. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?
• client
• server
• pruning
• transparent


43. Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is announcing all shown internal networks as a summary address to the ISP, which summary address will be most specific?
• 192.168.1.0/22
• 192.168.4.0/21
• 192.168.6.0/23
• 192.168.8.0/21
• 192.168.4.0/22

44. If an authentication protocol is configured for PPP operation, when is the client or user workstation authenticated?
• prior to link establishment
• during the link establishment phase
• before the network layer protocol configuration begins
• after the network layer protocol configuration has ended


45. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
• R2: Fa0/0 inbound
• R1: S0/1/0 outbound
• R1: S0/0/1 inbound
• R2: S0/0/1 outbound
• R2: Fa0/0 outbound


46. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• 172.16.16.0/20 is a manually summarized route.
• All subnets are being advertised because default summarization was disabled.
• The output verifies that EIGRP is advertising only the networks in the same AS.
• The 172.16.1.0/24 network is directly attached to the router that produced this output.
• The Null0 interface indicates that this is not an actual path, but a summary for advertising purposes.

47. What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
• eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device
• provides segmentation of broadcast domains
• allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another
• allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
• prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

48. Which two statements are true about RIPv1 and RIPv2? (Choose two.)
• Both versions broadcast updates on port 520.
• Both versions send the subnet mask as part of the update.
• By default, both versions will receive RIPv1 and RIPv2 updates.
• Both versions support the features of split horizon and poison reverse
• By default, both versions automatically summarize routes.
• RIPv1 has a higher AD than RIPv2 has.


49. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is the correct summary address?
• 192.168.0.0/22
• 192.168.0.0/23
• 192.168.0.0/24
• 192.168.0.0/25

50. Which three IP addresses are valid host addresses in the 10.200.0.0/20 network? (Choose three.)
• 10.200.11.69
• 10.200.16.1
• 10.200.0.255
• 10.201.0.55
• 10.200.15.240
• 10.200.30.29


51. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the RIPv1 routing protocol is enabled and that all networks are being advertised, which statement is true?
• All packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• None of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will arrive at H2.
• Approximately half the traffic from H1 that is destined to H2 will reach R3.
• Some of the packets from H1 that are destined to H2 will be sent to the switch that is connected to network 192.168.3.64/26.


52. Refer to the exhibit. Server7 has been added to the server farm network. The hosts can ping Servers 2 and 3 and Server2 and Server3 can ping each other. Server7 cannot ping the other servers connected to the switch. What is the cause of this problem?
• The Fa0/1 port on the switch should be in access mode.
• The switch IP address is not on the same subnet as Server7.
• The switch port used for Server7 is not in the same VLAN as Server2 and Server3.
• The Fa0/0 interface of the router has not been configured for subinterfaces to support inter-VLAN routing.


53. Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
• C, B, A, D
• D, C, B, A
• A, B, C, D
• A, C, B, D
• B, C, A, D

54. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• number of ports
• switch location
• switching speed
• base MAC address

55. The headquarters of a corporation uses static routes to connect to three branch offices. What are two advantages of using static routes for the WAN connections? (Choose two.)
• Static routes are more secure.
• Static routes converge faster.
• Static routes have higher administrative distances than dynamic routing protocols.
• The metrics of a static route need adjusting only if the bandwidth of the WAN connection changes.
• They are more stable and less susceptible to network changes in the interior gateway protocol.


56. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command: RouterA(config)# access-list 1 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255?
• It identifies traffic on all inside interfaces to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/1 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router.
• It allows traffic from the ISP to reach all of the inside interfaces.
• It identifies traffic from the fa0/0 interface to be translated and given access to the ISP router
• It allows traffic from the ISP router to the fa0/1 interface.

57. Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?
• to eliminate the effects of Ethernet collisions
• to reduce the impact of a key device or service failure
• to reduce the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
• to eliminate the need to block broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

58. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
• A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
• A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
• The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
• The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
• The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
• Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 2 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
• identify and prioritize alternative solutions
• isolate the cause of the problem
• define the problem
• select an evaluation process

2. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission
• initiating the network communication process
• encrypting and compressing data for transmission
• segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
• choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network

3. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
• conserving support resources
• network optimization
• competitive scalability
• customer retention
• sales of network services

4. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• bits, frames, packets, segments
• frames, bits, packets, segments
• packets, frames, segments, bits
• segments, packets, frames, bits

5. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
• routes data between networks
• converts data to bits for transmission
• delivers data reliably across the network using TCP
• formats and encodes data for transmission
• transmits data to the next directly connected device

6. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
• What is your subnet mask?
• What is your IP address?
• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• Can you ping the default gateway?
• Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
• Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?

7. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• adding the hardware address
• converting data to bits
• encapsulating data into frames
• signal generation
• routing packets

8. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?
• improper IP address configuration on the host
• hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
• bad cables or connections at the customer site
• failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses

9. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address
• source IP address
• destination IP address

10. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
• The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket.
• Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket.
• After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.
• When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.

11. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
• Level 1
• Level 2
• Level 3
• Level 4

12. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
• application, presentation, session
• application, session, network
• presentation, transport, network
• presentation, network, data link
• session, transport, network

13. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
• ping
• a packet sniffer
• Telnet
• ipconfig
• Traceroute

14. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
• incorrect subnet mask
• incorrect default gateway
• loose network cable
• NIC improperly installed

15. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.
• A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.
• A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
• An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.

16. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
• opening a trouble ticket
• using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
• surveying network conditions for further analysis
• configuring new equipment and software upgrades
• adhering to a problem-solving strategy
• e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer

17. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
• Can you access other web sites?
• Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
• What is your IP address?
• Is the link light lit on your NIC card?

18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
• Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
• Do you have a link light on your network card?
• Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
• What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
• Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?

19. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
• talking to the customer on the telephone
• upgrading hardware and software
• using various web tools
• making an onsite visit
• installing new equipment
• with remote desktop sharing applications

20. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• What is the IP address and subnet mask?
• Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?
• Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
• Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
• Can you access your e-mail account?

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
• ARP table
• routing table
• network table
• forwarding table

2. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
• a server hosted by the ISP
• the router interface closest to the computer
• a server managed by a central IT department
• the switch interface that connects to the computer

3. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
• It sends the data packet as it was received.
• It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
• It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
• It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
• type of cable used
• type of data transmission
• speed of transmission
• type of connector required
• maximum length of cable allowed

5. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
• They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
• They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
• They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
• They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
• They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

6. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
• It drops the frame.
• It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
• It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
• It returns the frame to the sender.

7. Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
• naming scheme
• IP addressing scheme
• length of cable runs
• physical location of networking devices
• specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

8. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
• detects transmission errors
• provides timing for transmission
• contains the start of frame delimiter
• indicates which protocol will receive the frame

9. If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
• dynamic route
• default route
• destination route
• default destination

10. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
• H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

11. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
• prevents collisions on a local network
• keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
• controls which hosts have access to the network
• controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

12. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• switch
• e-mail server
• application server
• wireless access point

13. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.

14. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source Ethernet address

15. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• WINS

16. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• server
• computer

17. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
• logical addresses only
• IP addresses only
• MAC addresses only
• broadcast addresses only

18. Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?
• flow control
• encapsulation
• encoding
• multicasting
• access method

19. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
• adds complexity to networks
• encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
• provides consistent interconnections across networks
• ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
• simplifies new product development

20. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
• It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
• It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
• It enables the user to share printers.
• It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

21. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
• modem
• switch
• router
• hub