1. When connecting two routers from different vendors using a dedicated point-to-point connection, which type of encapsulation should be used?
• Cisco
• HDLC
• IETF
• PPP
2. Which representations have the same meaning when representing the subnet mask?
• /10 and 255.224.0.0
• /15 and 255.255.0.0
• /21 and 255.255.248.0
• /24 and 255.255.0.0
3. Which layer of the OSI model provides negotiation of data transfer syntax?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network
4. Which of the following describe the Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It prevents routing loops.
• It prevents broadcasts in a switched network.
• It operates at Layer 3.
• It uses BPDUs to select the shortest path in a switched network.
• It allows a router to load balance across redundant links.
• It prevents switching loops.
5. What is the command syntax used to create a subinterface?
• Router(config-if)# int s0.115 point-to-point
• Router(config-if)# int s0 subinterface 115 point-to-point
• Router(config-if)# subinterface 115 point-to-point
• Router(config-if)# subinterface s0.115 point-to-point
6. Network broacast traffic from the Business Department is needlessly reaching the Engineering Department LAN. What can be done to contain this traffic within the Business Department network while maintaining connectivity with enterprise servers and the Internet? (Choose two.)
• Establish a VTP domain to contain the extraneous traffic.
• Provide greater bandwidth to the Engineering Department LAN.
• Utilize full-duplex Ethernet on the Engineering Department LAN.
• Place the business department on a separate subnet and route between networks.
• Change the switch IP address to an address on the Engineering Department LAN.
• Create separate VLANs and subnets for the two departments and route between the two.
7. What is the purpose of the show cdp neighbors command?
• to display a summary of the configurations of all directly attached Cisco devices
• to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local device
• to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
• to display addressing information about all remote routers
• to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area
8. Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
• A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
• A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
• Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
• There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.
9. Which device uses logical addresses to interconnect networks or subnetworks?
• hub
• layer 2 switch
• router
• bridge
• repeater
10. What are the advantages of OSPF in comparison with RIP v2? (Choose two.)
• OSPF provides support for Classless Interdomain Routing but RIP v2 does not.
• OSPF may result in faster convergence, due to triggered updates.
• OSPF's built-in features make it easy to design, implement, and troubleshoot.
• OSPF routers build a complete view of the network, reducing the potential for routing loops.
• OSPF sends periodic link state advertisements to keep the link active.
• OSPF routers have lower memory and processor requirements.
11. What is the length of a MAC address?
• 12 bits
• 24 bits
• 38 bits
• 48 bits
12. Which fields are common to the TCP and the UDP segments? (Choose two.)
• source address
• sequence number
• acknowledgement number
• options
• checksum
• destination port
13. Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source IP address
• source MAC address
14. Which of the following are commonly used routing metrics? (Choose three.)
• ARP
• hop count
• window size
• delay
• load
• media type
15. Which command will display the name of the Cisco IOS currently running on a router?
• show ip interfaces
• show ip route
• show cdp nei detail
• show version
16. Which router parameters can be set from global configuration mode? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• Telnet password
• hostname
• console password
• subnet mask
• enable secret password
17. What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
• SLIP
• PPP
• HDLC
• VPP
18. Which of the following are types of EIGRP packets? (Choose three.)
• hello
• respond
• DUAL
• query
• acknowledgement
• holddown
19. Which item best describes the ping command?
• It uses ICMP echo packets to verify connectivity at the TCP/IP internet layer
• It checks for connectivity at the TCP/IP application layer.
• It uses Time to Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router used along a path.
• It verifies sliding window settings at the TCP/IP transport layer.
20. Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
• bridge
• hub
• switch
• router
21. Which of the following authentication processes provides protection against playback attacks?
• CHAP
• DDI
• PAP
• TCP
22. What are the effects of LAN segmentation using a switch? (Choose three.)
• dedicated bandwidth between source and destinations
• enlarged collision domains
• decreased broadcast domains
• increased number of collision domains
• increased latency in the network
23. An ISDN BRI line can be described as which of the following?
• 2B + D
• 2D + B
• 23B + D
• 23D + B
24. For the purpose of forwarding packets, which protocol manages communication between routers regarding available routes ?
• DNS
• ICMP
• RIP
• ARP
• CDP
• STP
25. The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
26. Which commands will configure the router ports with IP addresses as shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
• R1(config)# interface s0
R1(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.146 255.255.255.252
• R1(config)# interface e0
R1(config-if)# ip address 10.1.7.254 255.255.252.0
• R1(config)# interface s0
R1(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.147 255.255.255.0
• R1(config)# interface e0
R1(config-if)# ip address 10.1.4.0 255.255.252.0
• R2(config)# interface e0
R2(config-if)# ip address 10.1.16.1 255.255.255.0
• R2(config)# interface e0
R2(config-if)# ip address 10.1.31.254 255.255.240.0
27. Which of the following is used for the delivery of EIGRP routing information?
• Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP)
• Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)
• Protocol-Dependent Modules (PDMs)
• Routing Table Maintenance Protocol (RTMP)
28. A mid-sized company has five remote locations with 55 end users at each location. The network administrator was assigned two consecutive Class C networks. Which three interior routing protocols will support this addressing scheme? (Choose three.)
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• BGP
29. In reference to the TCP/IP model, which protocol is used to determine the network access layer address associated with a known Internet layer address?
• ARP
• ICMP
• IP
• RARP
• TCP
• UDP
30. What are two authentication options supported by PPP? (Choose two.)
• clear text
• PAP
• CHAP
• LCP
• SLIP
31. What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
• proxy ARP
• CAM table exchanges
• host name tables
• routing protocols
• DNS lookups
32. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network
33. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096
34. All routers shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. Which routers will PERTH engage in DR and BDR elections? (Choose three.)
• LONDON
• PALMER
• PERTH
• FRANKLIN
35. Which connection modes are supported on a Frame Relay subinterface? (Choose two.)
• dynamic
• multicast
• multipoint
• multipoint-to-point
• point-to-point
• static
36. How is spanning-tree path cost determined by default?
• total hop count
• sum of the costs based on bandwidth
• dynamically determined based on load
• individual link cost based on latency
37. What is used to resolve known IP addresses to unknown MAC addresses?
• ARP
• DNS
• DHCP
• RARP
38. Which statement describes dynamic routing correctly?
• Dynamic routing automatically adjusts for topology or traffic changes.
• Dynamic routing must always be used to reach a stub network.
• Dynamic routing uses route information entered by an administrator.
• Dynamic routing reveals everything known about an entire autonomous system.
39. Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
• bootstrap, RAM, operating system
• bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
• bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
• operating system, configuration file, RAM
40. Which Layer 4 protocol is connection-oriented and reliable?
• ICMP
• TCP
• TFTP
• UDP
• HTTP
41. Which type of protocol is used between routers to communicate and maintain tables?
• non-routable
• routable
• routed
• routing
42. Which utility shows the route a packet takes to reach its destination?
• netstat
• ping
• Telnet
• traceroute
43. Which of the following WAN services uses two data link layer encapsulations, one for data and one for signaling?
• ISDN
• Frame Relay
• ATM
• FDDI
44. Which statements describe the operation of VLANs? (Choose two.)
• All switch ports assigned to a VLAN are part of the same collision domain.
• All switch ports assigned to a VLAN are part of the same broadcast domain.
• Using VLANs to logically organize workgroups minimizes latency in the network.
• Members can be assigned to VLANs based on port ID, MAC address, or protocol.
• Multiple VLANs can be assigned to a single, Layer 3 network address and routers can be used to route traffic between VLANs.
45. Which command displays the active configuration of a router?
• Router# show flash
• Router# show configuration
• Router# show running-config
• Router# show startup-config
46. Which mode will a router enter if it is unable to locate a valid startup configuration file during the boot process?
• boot mode
• config mode
• RXBOOT mode
• ROM monitor mode
• setup mode
• turnkey mode
47. How is RIP configured on a router?
• RIP is configured globally and then assigned an IP address and subnet mask.
• RIP is configured globally and then applied to each interface that will participate in the RIP routing process.
• RIP is configured individually on each interface that will participate in the RIP routing process.
• RIP is enabled globally and then networks are associated with the RIP routing process.
48. Which packet-switched WAN technologies are characterized by the use of Permanent Virtual Circuits (PVCs)?
• Frame Relay and ISDN
• Frame Relay and X.25
• ISDN and X.25
• ISDN only
49. What can be created by borrowing bits from the host portion of an IP address?
• extended IP addresses
• additional IP addresses
• segments
• subnetworks
• smaller collision domains
50. The ISDN, Frame Relay, and HDLC encapsulations are defined at which layer of the OSI model?
• network
• session
• data link
• transport
• physical
51. How are VLANs configured?
• by moving switches to different router ports
• by changing switchports for each host on the segment
• by physically moving equipment to a different network
• through software
• through hardware
• automatically with a plug and play module
52. Within a Frame Relay network, which methods are used by switches to inform DTEs of congestion?
• CCP and LMI
• CIR and LATE
• DLCI and SPID
• FECN and BECN
53. What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)
• preventing broadcasts
• increasing available bandwidth per user
• decreasing the size of collision domains
• isolating traffic among segments
• routing traffic between different networks
• decreasing the number of broadcast domains
54. In an effort to minimize traffic, an administrator decided to keep web traffic from causing the ISDN link to come up by denying WWW traffic to the 192.168.20.5 remote server. Two minutes after making changes to the configuration as shown in the graphic, the administrator notices that web traffic is still passing over the link. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
• The dialer-group has not been applied to outbound traffic.
• The access-list is incorrectly configured.
• Broadcasts are creating "interesting" traffic and keeping the link active.
• The command ip access-group 128 out is missing from the bri0/0 interface.
55. What is another term for latency?
• backoff algorithm
• hold-down timer
• propagation delay
• redundancy
56. Which command will successfully configure a router to use PPP encapsulation on one of its links?
• router> encapsulation ppp
• router# encapsulation ppp
• router(config)# encapsulation ppp
• router(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
57. Which ISDN channel is used for call setup?
• B
• D
• X
• SS-7
• PRI
• BRI
58. Which automatic process is started first whenever power is applied to a Cisco router?
• empties contents of NVRAM
• looks for the configuration file
• performs a POST
• starts the operating system
59. Which of the following is the reference point between the NT1 and the phone company network?
• R
• S
• T
• U
60. Which LMI types are available with Cisco routers?
• ANSI, Cisco, HDLC
• ANSI, Cisco, q933a
• ANSI, Cisco, DLCI
• Cisco, IETF, q933a
61. Which device connects four-wire ISDN subscriber wiring to the conventional two-wire local loop?
• NT1
• NT2
• TE1
• TE2
62. How is the number 225 represented in binary?
• 11001111
• 11011011
• 11110011
• 11100001
63. Refer to the graphic. This company was assigned a Class C network address for its two sites. The network administrator subnetted accordingly and configured each router with RIP. However, these routers are unable to connect to each other. What could be the problem?
• RIP cannot be used in place of a static route.
• RIPv1 was configured instead of RIPv2.
• RIPv2 was configured instead of RIPv1.
• RIP does not support stub networks.
64. Which of the following commands sets a condition to allow packets through a named ACL?
• adjust
• apply
• control
• permit
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