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Showing posts with label Real Ccna Exam Questions. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Real Ccna Exam Questions. Show all posts

Thursday, June 13, 2013

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. How often does RIPv2 send routing table updates, by default?
every 30 seconds
• every 45 seconds
• every 60 seconds
• every 90 seconds

2. What two problems may occur if the EIGRP default bandwidth for a serial link is higher than the actual bandwidth? (Choose two.)
• Routing updates will arrive too quickly for receiving routers to process.
• The port IP address will be rejected by the routing protocol.
Suboptimal paths will be selected.
• The port protocol will return to the HDLC default.
• VLSM support will be disabled.
Network convergence may be affected.

3. What two statements are correct regarding EIGRP authentication? (Choose two.)
EIGRP authentication uses the MD5 algorithm.
EIGRP authentication uses a pre-shared key.
• EIGRP authentication requires that both routers have the same key chain name.
• EIGRP authentication uses varying levels of WEP to encrypt data exchanged between routers.
• EIGRP authentication can be configured on one router and updates from this router are protected; whereas a neighbor router can be without the authentication configuration and its updates are unprotected.

4. What prevents RIPv1 updates from being correctly advertised?
• an increase in network load
the use of variable length subnet masks
• the use of multiple Layer 3 networks on the same router
• a variation in connection speeds on the links to a destination
• a mismatch between the configured bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of a link

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the EIGRP authentication configuration?
RTA and RTB will accept updates from each other.
• RTA and RTB will not accept updates from each other because key 1 on RTB does not match RTA.
• RTA and RTB will not accept updates from each other because the key chain names do not match.
• The ip authentication mode AS does not match the locally configured AS.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
6. Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTR-1 and RTR-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which group of commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?
RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0

• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.192 0.0.0.192 area 0
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
7. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing problem. When the show ip route command is entered on RTR-1, only the serial link between RTR-2 and RTR-3 has been learned from the RIP routing protocol. What are two issues? (Choose two.)
RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol.
• RIPv1 does not support subnetting.
The Ethernet networks on RTR-2 and RTR-3 were not entered correctly in the network statements on these routers.
• RIPv1 does not support VLSM.
• RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol.

8. Given the following commands:
Router(config)# router rip
Router(config-router)# network 192.31.7.0
What three conclusions can be determined based on the commands used on the router? (Choose three.)
• A link-state routing protocol is used.
A distance vector routing protocol is used.
Routing updates broadcast every 30 seconds.
• Routing updates broadcast every 90 seconds.
Hop count is the only metric used for route selection.
• Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are metrics used for route selection.

9. What three statements are true about routers that are configured for EIGRP? (Choose three.)
They can support multiple routed protocols
• They can support only link-state protocols.
• They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
• They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

10. A network administrator issues the command show ip route and sees this line of output:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:05, Serial0/0
What two pieces of information can be obtained from the output? (Choose two.)
RIP is the routing protocol configured.
• This is a static route to network 192.168.3.0.
The metric for this route is 2.
• The next periodic update is in 5 seconds.
• The autonomous system number is 120.

11. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
• A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
• The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
• The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
• Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

12. What is the default administrative distance for EIGRP internal routes?
• 70
90
• 100
• 110
• 120
• 255

13. What is the maximum number of hops that RIP will attempt before it considers the destination unreachable?
• 14 hops
15 hops
• 16 hops
• 17 hops

14. What is the purpose of the network command when RIP is being configured as the routing protocol?
• It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router.
• It restricts networks from being used for static routes.
• It identifies all of the destination networks that the router is allowed to install in its routing table.
It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing updates.

15. What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
• The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
• The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
• The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
• There is no activity on the route to that network.
The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output from the show ip protocols command?
RIPv2 is configured on this router.
• Auto summarization has been disabled.
• The next routing update is due in 17 seconds.
• 192.168.16.1 is the address configured on the local router

17. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
• when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
• when a router has more than three active interfaces
when a network contains discontiguous network addresses
• when a router has less than five active interfaces
• when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

18. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
• by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
• by comparing known routes to information received in updates
by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers
• by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
• by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

19. Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?
• DUAL
• IP
• PDM
RTP
• TCP
• UDP

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
20. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which router command will summarize the attached routes?
• ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
• ip summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.224

21. What does a router that is running RIP use to determine the best path to take when forwarding data?
• the host portion of the network address
• the speed of network convergence
the calculated metric for the destination network
• the number of broadcasts occurring on an interface
• the number of errors occurring on an interface

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
Reboot the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
Select the correct VTP mode and version.
Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

2. A router has two serial interfaces and two Fast Ethernet interfaces. This router must be connected to a WAN link and to a switch that supports four VLANs. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient and cost-effective manner to support inter-VLAN routing between the four VLANs?
• Connect a smaller router to the serial interface to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
• Add two additional Fast Ethernet interfaces to the router to allow one VLAN per interface.
Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to one Fast Ethernet interface on the router and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
• Use serial-to-Fast Ethernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the serial ports on the router. Support the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
3. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 2
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 3
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 2 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

5. Which two items will prevent broadcasts from being sent throughout the network? (Choose two.)
• bridges
routers
• switches
VLANs
• hubs

6. When are MAC addresses removed from the CAM table?
• at regular 30 second intervals
• when a broadcast packet is received
• when the IP Address of a host is changed
after they have been idle for a certain period of time

7. Using STP, how long does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
50 seconds

8. What is the purpose of VTP?
maintaining consistency in VLAN configuration across the network
• routing frames from one VLAN to another
• routing the frames along the best path between switches
• tagging user data frames with VLAN membership information
• distributing BPDUs to maintain loop-free switched paths

9. The information contained in a BPDU is used for which two purposes? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
• to activate looped paths throughout the network

10. Which two characteristics describe a port in the STP blocking state? (Choose two.)
• provides port security
• displays a steady green light
• learns MAC addresses as BPDUs are processed
discards data frames received from the attached segment
receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

11. Which statement best describes adaptive cut-through switching?
The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to store-and-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to fast-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then temporarily disables the port if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using store-and-forward switching and then changes to cut-through switching if errors exceed a threshold value.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are interconnected by trunked links and are configured for VTP as shown. A new VLAN is added to Switch1. Which three actions will occur? (Choose three.)
• Switch1 will not add the VLAN to its database and will pass the update to Switch 2.
Switch2 will add the VLAN to its database and pass the update to Switch3.
Switch3 will pass the VTP update to Switch4.
• Switch3 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will add the VLAN to its database.
Switch4 will not receive the update.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
13. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements can be concluded from the information that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
All ports that are listed in the exhibit are access ports.
• ARP requests from Host1 will be forwarded to Host2.
• Attaching Host1 to port 3 will automatically allow communication between both hosts.
• The default gateway for each host must be changed to 192.168.3.250/28 to allow communication between both hosts.
A router connected to the switch is needed to forward traffic between the hosts.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
14. A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

15. Which three must be used when a router interface is configured for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches. Which two are possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

17. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
base MAC address
• switch location

18. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
forwarding

19. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment

20. Which Catalyst feature causes a switch port to enter the spanning-tree forwarding state immediately?
• backbonefast
• uplinkfast
portfast
• rapid spanning tree

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 4 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
• Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
• A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
• Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.

2. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

3. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
• 64
• 96
128
• 192
• 256
• 512

4. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
improved security
• improved router performance
• decreased processor load
improved scalability
• universal application compatibility
sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 4 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

6. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 128
• 254
• 255
256
• 512
• 1024

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 4 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
7. refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

8. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
192.168.32.255

9. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
11100111
• 11100101
• 11101110

10. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
• Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
• Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

11. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
• 255 and below
• 1024 and below
1025 and above
• 64,000 and above

12. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

13. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
30
• 62

14. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

15. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

16. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
• 2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
• 2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

17. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

18. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to preserve registered public IP addresses
• to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
• to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
• to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers

19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
inside global
• outside local
• outside global
• private IP address

20. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
Class C
• Class D
• Class E