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Showing posts with label Cisco Final Exam. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Cisco Final Exam. Show all posts

Thursday, June 13, 2013

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is doing proactive network maintenance. The administrator pings 192.168.1.100 and compares the results to the baseline data. Based on the comparison of the two pings, what is one possibility?
• There is an ACL applied, making the destination host unreachable.
• There is a malfunctioning NIC on the destination host.
• The sending host is unable to access the network.
• There are congestion problems on the network.

2. The enterprise mail server software recently went through a minor update. A network administrator notices an excessive amount of traffic between a database server and the newly updated mail server, compared to the baseline data. What is the first action the administrator should do to investigate the problem?
• Wait to see if the recent update will stabilize after a while.
• Redo the baseline data to include the minor upgrade.
• Check the log to see what software components are producing the excess traffic.
• Check for viruses and spyware on the database server.

3. Which two statements describe when a network administrator should perform a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• It should be done monthly as a minimum standard.
• It should be performed when all switch Cisco IOS versions are upgraded.
• It should be done when all network printers are upgraded to a new model.
• It should be done when the network is performing at normal activity levels.
• It should be done whenever an SLA has been signed with a new service provider.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
4. Refer to the exhibit. ABC Company is using the 172.16.0.0/18 network. It is standard company practice to use the first 50 addresses for switches and servers and assign the last usable address to the router. The remaining addresses are assigned to the hosts. After assigning the addresses, the network technician tests connectivity from the host above and is not able to ping the router. What could be the problem?
• The router was assigned the broadcast address.
• The host is not in the same subnet as the switch and router.
• The router interface is in the wrong subnet.
• The host was assigned a network address.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
5. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, why is VTP information unable to propagate the network?
• One of the two client mode switches must be reconfigured to Transparent mode.
• Each switch must be synchronized to the network time server.
• The VTP domain names are different.
• VTP passwords must be set.
• The configuration revision numbers are all the same.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented subnetting using the network 192.168.25.0 and a /28 mask. Workstation 1 is not able to ping with Workstation 2. What is a possible cause for this lack of communication?
• Workstation 1 and Workstation 2 are on the same subnet.
• The serial connections are using addresses from the LAN subnets.
• All hosts in the network must be in the same subnet to communicate.
• Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the RTA router LAN interface is on.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
7. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a problem. No users are able to access the 10.10.2.0/24 network, but are able to access all other networks. Assuming R3 is configured correctly and based on the output shown, what is most likely the problem?
• There is congestion on the 10.10.2.0 network.
• The EIGRP process number on R2 is incorrect.
• The Fa0/0 interface on R2 is shut down.
• The Fa0/0 interface on R2 has an incorrect IP address or subnet mask.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
8. Although all networks are reachable, the network administrator notices abnormal routing behavior after configuring OSPF on each router. According to the partial output from the debug ip ospf events command, which statement is true about the contents of the routing table in RA?
• It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RB.
• It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RC.
• It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.4/30.
• It will show two equal routes to network 192.168.1.8/30.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
9. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output generated by the debug ppp negotiation command, which statement is true?
• The line protocol of the local router is now up.
• The username ’Goleta’ is configured locally.
• The command ppp authentication pap is configured on both routers.
• The local router requested to terminate the session.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
10. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL is configured to prevent access by network 192.168.1.0 to network 192.168.2.0, but it is not working properly. What problem is discovered after observing the output of the show running-config command?
• The protocol type specified in the ACL should be TCP, not IP.
• The source and destination addresses are reversed in the statement.
• The ACL is applied to the wrong interface, but the right direction.
• The ACL is applied to the wrong interface and the wrong direction.
• The permit ip any any statement allows network 192.168.1.0 access.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. Using the show vlan command, the administrator verifies that port Fast Ethernet 0/4 is the first available port in the default VLAN on SW2. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
• Port 0/4 is not active.
• Port 0/4 must be a member of VLAN1.
• Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
• Port 0/4 is configured as a trunk port.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
12. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is troubleshooting the connectivity issue between RA and RB. According to the partial configuration, what is the cause of the problem?
• password mismatch for PPP authentication
• username mismatch for PPP authentication
• encapsulation method mismatch for PPP authentication
• authentication method mismatch for PPP authentication

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output shown, to which IP network should the workstations in the Support department belong?
• 192.168.1.0
• 172.16.1.0
• 172.16.3.0
• 172.16.5.0

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?
• Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
• One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
• The serial link between the two routers is unstable.
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
15. Refer to the exhibit. A lab technician connects two routers together via a serial cable using the default interface configuration values. The interfaces are up; however, the technician is unable to ping between the two devices. What is the most likely problem?
• The lab technician used the wrong cable to connect the serial ports.
• There is an IP mismatch between the serial ports.
• There is an encapsulation mismatch between the serial ports.
• No clock rate has been set on the DCE interface.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the network diagram and the output shown, which statement is true?
• The command was entered on router R1.
• The command was entered on router R2.
• The command was entered on router R3.
• The command could have been entered on either R1 or R2.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
17. Refer to the exhibit. Users are reporting that they cannot access the Internet. Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP version 2 as shown. If R2 receives a packet with a destination address on the Internet, how is the packet routed?
• The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to network 10.1.1.0/24.
• The packet is routed to the ISP router and then to the Internet
• The packet is routed to R1 and then forwarded out Fa0/0 on R1.
• The packet will not be routed because R2 does not have a valid default route.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
18. Refer to the exhibit. Host 192.168.1.14 is unable to download email from 192.168.2.200. After reviewing the output of the show running-config command, what problem is discovered?
• Access to the SMTP server is denied.
• The destination host address in an ACL statement is incorrect.
• The ACL is applied to the interface in the wrong direction.
• The implicit deny any any is blocking all access to email.

19. A network at a large building failed, causing a severe disruption in business activities. The problem was eventually detected and resolved by replacing a piece of failed network equipment. Investigation led to the conclusion that a network design problem was the main cause of the disruption. Loss of a single piece of equipment should not have been able to cause such a large problem. What two terms best describe this type of design weakness? (Choose two.)
• bottleneck
• limited availability
• limited scalability
• large failure domain
• single point of failure
• limited staff capabilities

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to ping from the console of router R3 to host 10.10.4.63. What is the problem?
• RIPv1 does not support VLSM.
• Router R2 does not have RIP correctly configured.
• Router R3 is missing a network statement for network 10.0.0.0.
• There is an addressing problem on the link between routers R2 and R3.

21. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
• The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
• The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
• The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.
• The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.

22. An employee called the help desk to report a laptop that could not access a web-based application on the Internet. The help desk technician asked the employee to open a Windows command prompt and type the ipconfig /all command. Which problem-solving technique did the technician choose?
• top-down
• bottom-up
• substitution
• divide-and-conquer

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Reboot the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

2. A router has two serial interfaces and two Fast Ethernet interfaces. This router must be connected to a WAN link and to a switch that supports four VLANs. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient and cost-effective manner to support inter-VLAN routing between the four VLANs?
• Connect a smaller router to the serial interface to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
• Add two additional Fast Ethernet interfaces to the router to allow one VLAN per interface.
• Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to one Fast Ethernet interface on the router and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
• Use serial-to-Fast Ethernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the serial ports on the router. Support the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
3. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 2
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 3
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 2 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

5. Which two items will prevent broadcasts from being sent throughout the network? (Choose two.)
• bridges
• routers
• switches
• VLANs
• hubs

6. When are MAC addresses removed from the CAM table?
• at regular 30 second intervals
• when a broadcast packet is received
• when the IP Address of a host is changed
• after they have been idle for a certain period of time

7. Using STP, how long does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 50 seconds

8. What is the purpose of VTP?
• maintaining consistency in VLAN configuration across the network
• routing frames from one VLAN to another
• routing the frames along the best path between switches
• tagging user data frames with VLAN membership information
• distributing BPDUs to maintain loop-free switched paths

9. The information contained in a BPDU is used for which two purposes? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
• to activate looped paths throughout the network

10. Which two characteristics describe a port in the STP blocking state? (Choose two.)
• provides port security
• displays a steady green light
• learns MAC addresses as BPDUs are processed
• discards data frames received from the attached segment
• receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

11. Which statement best describes adaptive cut-through switching?
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to store-and-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to fast-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then temporarily disables the port if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using store-and-forward switching and then changes to cut-through switching if errors exceed a threshold value.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are interconnected by trunked links and are configured for VTP as shown. A new VLAN is added to Switch1. Which three actions will occur? (Choose three.)
• Switch1 will not add the VLAN to its database and will pass the update to Switch 2.
• Switch2 will add the VLAN to its database and pass the update to Switch3.
• Switch3 will pass the VTP update to Switch4.
• Switch3 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will not receive the update.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
13. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements can be concluded from the information that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• All ports that are listed in the exhibit are access ports.
• ARP requests from Host1 will be forwarded to Host2.
• Attaching Host1 to port 3 will automatically allow communication between both hosts.
• The default gateway for each host must be changed to 192.168.3.250/28 to allow communication between both hosts.
• A router connected to the switch is needed to forward traffic between the hosts.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
14. A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

15. Which three must be used when a router interface is configured for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
• one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches. Which two are possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

17. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location

18. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

19. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment

20. Which Catalyst feature causes a switch port to enter the spanning-tree forwarding state immediately?
• backbonefast
• uplinkfast
• portfast
• rapid spanning tree

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
• source port with destination port
• source IP address with destination port
• source IP address and destination IP address
• source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port

2. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
• It uses well-known port 23.
• The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
• In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
• It requires two connections between client and server.
• FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.

3. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
• The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
• The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
• The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
• The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.

4. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
• It utilizes TCP port 110.
• A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
• It utilizes a store and forward process.
• The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
• SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
• Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
• Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
• Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
• Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
• Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
• Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

6. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
• DNS - 25
• FTP - 110
• HTTP - 80
• POP3 - 25
• SMTP - 25

7. hat is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
• It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
• It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
• It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
• It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
• If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
• The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
• If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco
• web server IP address before DNS is queried.
• The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
• Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
9. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
• dynamic
• zone transfer
• local recursive query
• root domain query
• top-level domain query

10. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
• Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
• Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
• Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
• Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061

11. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
• connection oriented
• full-duplex operation
• low overhead
• no flow control
• no error-recovery function
• reliable transmission

12. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
• dynamic lookup
• forward lookup
• resolution lookup
• reverse lookup

13. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
• maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
• maintaining the ISP server
• mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
• forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
• forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
14. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• MAC address
• session number
• sequence number

15. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
• Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
• Reliability is measured as a percent.
• Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
• Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
• The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.

16. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
• accessibility
• adaptability
• availability
• reliability
• scalability

17. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
• It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
• It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
• It supports authentication.
• It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
• It encrypts packets with SSL.
• It requires additional server processing time.

18. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
• FTP
• HTTP
• ICMP
• PPP
• Telnet
• SMTP

19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
• caching-only
• root
• second-level
• top-level

20. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
• The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
• The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
• The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
• The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
• The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

21. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
• SNMP
• FTP
• SMTP
• HTTPS