1. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
2. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• forwarding
• learning
• listening
3. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
5. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology ma
6. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
7. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief
8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.
9. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3
10. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.
11. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer
12. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics
13. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.
14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.
15. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.
16. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration mode
• to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.
17. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing
18. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• designated
19. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.
20. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2
Showing posts with label Ccna 3 Practice Final Exam Answers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Ccna 3 Practice Final Exam Answers. Show all posts
Thursday, June 13, 2013
CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Designing and Supporting Computer Networks
1. A company is beginning to analyze their new Cisco IOS upgrade requirements. What is one of the
router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new Cisco IOS version?
• processor type
• storage space in NVRAM
• interfaces and modules to be supported
• compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software
2. During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company
wireless network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from
radiating out into the parking lot?
• change the channel on the wireless AP
• connect the wireless AP to a firewall
• change the type of antenna attached to the AP
• move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN
• move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch
3. Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
• R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.
• R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.
• The version of the IOS is 12.3.
• Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.
• A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.
4. The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is hotswappable.
What does this mean?
• The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge
could damage the card.
• The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled down.
• The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this technology.
• The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is replacing.
5. In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network
consulting team detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers,
provide network diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the network?
• network requirements
• project scope
• overall project goal
• state of the network
6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge about
a poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network administrator
discover from the command output? (Choose two.)
• One connected device has router capability.
• The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.
• None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP address.
• Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.
• Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions improve the weaknesses of the topology shown, assuming
that each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)
• Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.
• Implement a reduntant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server Farm.
• Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a redundant link to the DMZ.
• Implement reduntant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.
• Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by
the value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?
• version
• file format
• feature set
• hardware platform
9. An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop
fluctuates from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that area.
Which three factors need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)
• type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop
• number of users in the area
• location of the AP
• list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP
• number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee
• location of walls and filing cabinets in the office
10. During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak
usage and the estimated number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what
step of the site survey process?
• the defining of customer requirements
• the identification of coverage areas
• the determining of preliminary AP locations
• the measurement of signal strength
11. A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued
to upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What
could be the problem?
• There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.
• The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.
• The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.
• The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.
• The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.
12. Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)
• identify coverage areas
• determine primary AP locations
• determine what AP equipment should be purchased
• determine how many users will access the WLAN
• identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure
13. What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface card in a router? (Choose two.)
• Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.
• Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes the card.
• Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.
• Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.
• Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely
14. An administrator wants to download a new Cisco IOS software version to the local router. Which
command performs this task?
• copy tftp flash
• copy flash run
• copy start tftp
• copy flash tftp
• copy tftp start
15. A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this
phase of the project?
• eliminate the need for a site survey
• shorten the timeframe of the project
• lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices
• determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced
• To determine what existing network devices require upgrades to meet the new
16. Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco
IOS image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the show
version command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the router to
run this Cisco IOS image?
• There is not enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.
• There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
• The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
• The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
• The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.
18. Which three pieces of information need to be considered when selecting the proper Cisco IOS
version for an upgrade? (Choose three.)
• processor ID
• interface type
• amount of DRAM
• bootstrap version
• device make and model
• size of system flash memory
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the IOS on
R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer failed?(Choose two.)
• The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.
• There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.
• Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.
• The copy command was incorrectly entered.
• The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.
20. The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic. Before
upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the new
requirements. Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)
• number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany
• routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs
• size of DRAM and flash on each device
• routers that will support HWICs and VWICs
• system bootstrap version on each router and switch
• modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS
21. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a
logical diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be determined
from the output shown?
• The device with the ID of ISP is a router on the Internet.
• The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.
• The designer cannot telnet to the attached switch.
• The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.
22. production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What three facts can be
determined? (Choose three.)
• POST occurred normally.
• The boot process was interrupted.
• There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
• A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
• A configuration file was not located in NVRAM or from a TFTP server.
• The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
23. Which two pieces of information does the network designer need to determine if the Cisco IOS of
a router requires an upgrade? (Choose two.)
• amount of NVRAM installed
• model number of the router
• number of interfaces and installed HWICs
• installed Cisco IOS feature set and version
• error statistics for each interface
24. It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or
involved in a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design
Requirements Document?
• Project Goal
• Project Scope
• Technical Requirements
• Current State of the Network
router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new Cisco IOS version?
• processor type
• storage space in NVRAM
• interfaces and modules to be supported
• compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software
2. During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company
wireless network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from
radiating out into the parking lot?
• change the channel on the wireless AP
• connect the wireless AP to a firewall
• change the type of antenna attached to the AP
• move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN
• move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch
3. Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
• R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.
• R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.
• The version of the IOS is 12.3.
• Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.
• A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.
4. The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is hotswappable.
What does this mean?
• The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge
could damage the card.
• The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled down.
• The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this technology.
• The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is replacing.
5. In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network
consulting team detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers,
provide network diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the network?
• network requirements
• project scope
• overall project goal
• state of the network
6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge about
a poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network administrator
discover from the command output? (Choose two.)
• One connected device has router capability.
• The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.
• None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP address.
• Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.
• Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions improve the weaknesses of the topology shown, assuming
that each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)
• Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.
• Implement a reduntant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server Farm.
• Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a redundant link to the DMZ.
• Implement reduntant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.
• Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by
the value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?
• version
• file format
• feature set
• hardware platform
9. An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop
fluctuates from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that area.
Which three factors need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)
• type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop
• number of users in the area
• location of the AP
• list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP
• number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee
• location of walls and filing cabinets in the office
10. During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak
usage and the estimated number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what
step of the site survey process?
• the defining of customer requirements
• the identification of coverage areas
• the determining of preliminary AP locations
• the measurement of signal strength
11. A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued
to upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What
could be the problem?
• There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.
• The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.
• The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.
• The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.
• The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.
12. Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)
• identify coverage areas
• determine primary AP locations
• determine what AP equipment should be purchased
• determine how many users will access the WLAN
• identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure
13. What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface card in a router? (Choose two.)
• Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.
• Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes the card.
• Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.
• Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.
• Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely
14. An administrator wants to download a new Cisco IOS software version to the local router. Which
command performs this task?
• copy tftp flash
• copy flash run
• copy start tftp
• copy flash tftp
• copy tftp start
15. A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this
phase of the project?
• eliminate the need for a site survey
• shorten the timeframe of the project
• lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices
• determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced
• To determine what existing network devices require upgrades to meet the new
16. Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco
IOS image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the show
version command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the router to
run this Cisco IOS image?
• There is not enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.
• There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
• The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
• The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
• The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.
18. Which three pieces of information need to be considered when selecting the proper Cisco IOS
version for an upgrade? (Choose three.)
• processor ID
• interface type
• amount of DRAM
• bootstrap version
• device make and model
• size of system flash memory
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the IOS on
R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer failed?(Choose two.)
• The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.
• There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.
• Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.
• The copy command was incorrectly entered.
• The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.
20. The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic. Before
upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the new
requirements. Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)
• number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany
• routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs
• size of DRAM and flash on each device
• routers that will support HWICs and VWICs
• system bootstrap version on each router and switch
• modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS
21. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a
logical diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be determined
from the output shown?
• The device with the ID of ISP is a router on the Internet.
• The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.
• The designer cannot telnet to the attached switch.
• The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.
22. production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What three facts can be
determined? (Choose three.)
• POST occurred normally.
• The boot process was interrupted.
• There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
• A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
• A configuration file was not located in NVRAM or from a TFTP server.
• The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
23. Which two pieces of information does the network designer need to determine if the Cisco IOS of
a router requires an upgrade? (Choose two.)
• amount of NVRAM installed
• model number of the router
• number of interfaces and installed HWICs
• installed Cisco IOS feature set and version
• error statistics for each interface
24. It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or
involved in a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design
Requirements Document?
• Project Goal
• Project Scope
• Technical Requirements
• Current State of the Network
CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
1. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Reboot the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
2. A router has two serial interfaces and two Fast Ethernet interfaces. This router must be connected to a WAN link and to a switch that supports four VLANs. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient and cost-effective manner to support inter-VLAN routing between the four VLANs?
• Connect a smaller router to the serial interface to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
• Add two additional Fast Ethernet interfaces to the router to allow one VLAN per interface.
• Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to one Fast Ethernet interface on the router and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
• Use serial-to-Fast Ethernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the serial ports on the router. Support the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.
3. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 2
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 3
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 2 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
5. Which two items will prevent broadcasts from being sent throughout the network? (Choose two.)
• bridges
• routers
• switches
• VLANs
• hubs
6. When are MAC addresses removed from the CAM table?
• at regular 30 second intervals
• when a broadcast packet is received
• when the IP Address of a host is changed
• after they have been idle for a certain period of time
7. Using STP, how long does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 50 seconds
8. What is the purpose of VTP?
• maintaining consistency in VLAN configuration across the network
• routing frames from one VLAN to another
• routing the frames along the best path between switches
• tagging user data frames with VLAN membership information
• distributing BPDUs to maintain loop-free switched paths
9. The information contained in a BPDU is used for which two purposes? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
• to activate looped paths throughout the network
10. Which two characteristics describe a port in the STP blocking state? (Choose two.)
• provides port security
• displays a steady green light
• learns MAC addresses as BPDUs are processed
• discards data frames received from the attached segment
• receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module
11. Which statement best describes adaptive cut-through switching?
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to store-and-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to fast-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then temporarily disables the port if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using store-and-forward switching and then changes to cut-through switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are interconnected by trunked links and are configured for VTP as shown. A new VLAN is added to Switch1. Which three actions will occur? (Choose three.)
• Switch1 will not add the VLAN to its database and will pass the update to Switch 2.
• Switch2 will add the VLAN to its database and pass the update to Switch3.
• Switch3 will pass the VTP update to Switch4.
• Switch3 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will not receive the update.
13. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements can be concluded from the information that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• All ports that are listed in the exhibit are access ports.
• ARP requests from Host1 will be forwarded to Host2.
• Attaching Host1 to port 3 will automatically allow communication between both hosts.
• The default gateway for each host must be changed to 192.168.3.250/28 to allow communication between both hosts.
• A router connected to the switch is needed to forward traffic between the hosts.
14. A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
15. Which three must be used when a router interface is configured for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
• one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface
16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches. Which two are possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.
17. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location
18. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding
19. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment
20. Which Catalyst feature causes a switch port to enter the spanning-tree forwarding state immediately?
• backbonefast
• uplinkfast
• portfast
• rapid spanning tree
• Reboot the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
2. A router has two serial interfaces and two Fast Ethernet interfaces. This router must be connected to a WAN link and to a switch that supports four VLANs. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient and cost-effective manner to support inter-VLAN routing between the four VLANs?
• Connect a smaller router to the serial interface to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
• Add two additional Fast Ethernet interfaces to the router to allow one VLAN per interface.
• Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to one Fast Ethernet interface on the router and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
• Use serial-to-Fast Ethernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the serial ports on the router. Support the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.
3. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 2
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 3
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
• Router(config)# interface vlan 2
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
Router(config)# interface vlan 3
Router(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 2 3
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
5. Which two items will prevent broadcasts from being sent throughout the network? (Choose two.)
• bridges
• routers
• switches
• VLANs
• hubs
6. When are MAC addresses removed from the CAM table?
• at regular 30 second intervals
• when a broadcast packet is received
• when the IP Address of a host is changed
• after they have been idle for a certain period of time
7. Using STP, how long does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 50 seconds
8. What is the purpose of VTP?
• maintaining consistency in VLAN configuration across the network
• routing frames from one VLAN to another
• routing the frames along the best path between switches
• tagging user data frames with VLAN membership information
• distributing BPDUs to maintain loop-free switched paths
9. The information contained in a BPDU is used for which two purposes? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
• to activate looped paths throughout the network
10. Which two characteristics describe a port in the STP blocking state? (Choose two.)
• provides port security
• displays a steady green light
• learns MAC addresses as BPDUs are processed
• discards data frames received from the attached segment
• receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module
11. Which statement best describes adaptive cut-through switching?
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to store-and-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to fast-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then temporarily disables the port if errors exceed a threshold value.
• The switch initially forwards all traffic using store-and-forward switching and then changes to cut-through switching if errors exceed a threshold value.
12. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are interconnected by trunked links and are configured for VTP as shown. A new VLAN is added to Switch1. Which three actions will occur? (Choose three.)
• Switch1 will not add the VLAN to its database and will pass the update to Switch 2.
• Switch2 will add the VLAN to its database and pass the update to Switch3.
• Switch3 will pass the VTP update to Switch4.
• Switch3 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will add the VLAN to its database.
• Switch4 will not receive the update.
13. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements can be concluded from the information that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• All ports that are listed in the exhibit are access ports.
• ARP requests from Host1 will be forwarded to Host2.
• Attaching Host1 to port 3 will automatically allow communication between both hosts.
• The default gateway for each host must be changed to 192.168.3.250/28 to allow communication between both hosts.
• A router connected to the switch is needed to forward traffic between the hosts.
14. A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the exhibit. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
15. Which three must be used when a router interface is configured for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
• one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface
16. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches. Which two are possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.
17. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location
18. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding
19. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment
20. Which Catalyst feature causes a switch port to enter the spanning-tree forwarding state immediately?
• backbonefast
• uplinkfast
• portfast
• rapid spanning tree
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