CCNA Exam Answers

Friday, October 5, 2007

Module 11 Exam Answers

1 .Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)
• 19
• 20
• 21
• 22

2 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?
• SMTP
• SNMP
• FTP
• TFTP
• EIGRP

3 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?
• TFTP
• TCP
• DNS
• IP
• UDP

4 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?
• TCP uses only LAN connections.
• TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
• TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
• TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.

5 What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)
• port numbers
• checksum values
• authentication keys
• sequence numbers
• encryption algorithms
• acknowledgment numbers

6 What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?
• The web browser needs to locate the www server.
• The address is located on a site whose name is http.
• The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.
• The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.

7 When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
• network
• application
• session
• transport

8 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
• no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
• connection-oriented
• provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
• reliability provided by the application layer
• connectionless
• utilizes sliding windowing techniques

9 Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?
• FTP
• SMTP
• SNMP
• DNS
• HTTP
• WWW

10 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?
• indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
• reassemble the segments into the correct order
• identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
• track different conversations crossing the network at the same time

11 If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are being used?
• UDP, connection-oriented
• UDP, connectionless
• TCP, connection-oriented
• TCP, connectionless

12 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?
• FTP
• TFTP
• SNMP
• TCP
• DHCP

13 Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer between two hosts?
• Application
• Presentation
• Session
• Transport

14 Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• end-to-end connectivity
• flow control
• security control
• data representation
• encryption of data

15 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
SNMP

Module 9/10 Exam Answers

1. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

2. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

3. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

4.

• The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

5. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23

6. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts

• to assign a MAC address to a host

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.

10. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

11. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

14.

Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

15. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

16. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network through the router?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.10.1

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
• The configuration will work as planned.
• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
• The default gateway of host A is a network address.
• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 - 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
• The LAN is being addressed properly.
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

21. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
• static routes
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

22. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

23. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

25. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

Module 9 Exam Answers

1. What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)
• The originating host dynamically issues an arp -a command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network receives this packet.
• The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its MAC address back to the originating host.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the originating host with its MAC address.

2. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

3. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255

5. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0
• 225.1.5.0

7. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

8. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

11. Why were private IP addresses developed?
• to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses
• to permit the duplication of public IP addresses
• to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses
• to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks
• to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses

12. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

13. When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the destination MAC address of a remote host?
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination
• sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown in the exhibit?
• to configure the computer to use ARP
• to configure the computer to use DHCP
• to configure the computer to use a routing protocol
• to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address

15. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

16. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

17. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

18. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

19. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
• to assign a MAC address to a host

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
• The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

Module 8 Exam Answers

1. What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?
• forwards data based on logical addressing
• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
• uses the destination MAC address to determine the specific interface to forward a frame

2. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)
• A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
• A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
• A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
• A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN
• A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.
• The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct the problem?
• Replace the hub with a switch.
• Replace the hub with a router.
• Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
• Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.

4.

Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?
• segments 1 and 2
• segment 2
• segments 3 and 4
• segments 2, 3, and 4
• segments 1, 2, 3, and 4

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router

6. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?
• hub
• router
• switch
• repeater

7. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• bridge
• hub
• switch
• repeater

8. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)
switch
• repeater
• router
• bridge
• hub

9. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• hub
• switch
• router
repeater

10.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?
• 1
• 2
• 5
• 12
• 13
• 15

11. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?
• The frame is a runt frame.
• The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
• The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
• The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.

12. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?
• bridge
• hub
• router
• transceiver

13. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?
• discard frame
• ignore frame
• send frame to appropriate port
• send frame to all ports except source port

14. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
• hub
• Layer 2 switch
• router
• bridge
• repeater

15. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?
• bridging
• segmentation
• Address Resolution Protocol
• Spanning-Tree Protocol

Module 7 Exam Answers

1. Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-LX

2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

3. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

4. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule

5. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

6. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

7. What RJ-45 pins are unused when transmitting and receiving data in an Ethernet 100BASE-T Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two.)
• 1 and 2
• 3 and 6
• 4 and 5
• 7 and 8

8. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

9. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

10. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

Module 6/7 Exam Answers

1. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
• Logical Link Control
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

2.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
• autonegotiation
• FastEthernet
• peer-to-peer shared resources
• administratively configured full duplex

9.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

10. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

11. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.
• When the four hosts detect the collision, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 generate a jam signal.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.

13. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?
• The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
• The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
• The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
• The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.

14. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

15. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

16. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

17. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

18. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

19. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

20. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

Module 6 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
• The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
• The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
• The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
• The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.

2. How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?
• 2
• 8
• 12
•16
• 32

3. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

4. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 7

5. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?
• serial and ISDN interfaces
• Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
• Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
• Token Ring and serial interfaces

6. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

7. Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
• reliable
• point-to-point
• nondeterministic
• connection-oriented
• collision environment
• first-come, first-served approach

8. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
• hub
• modem
• repeater
• NIC
• Layer 2 switch

9. On a local area network, one workstation can send data on the line while it is receiving data. What type of data transfer does this describe?
• hybrid
• half duplex
• full duplex
• multilink

10.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician wants to increase the available bandwidth for the workstation by allowing the switch and the NIC on the workstation to transmit and receive simultaneously. What will permit this?
• CSMA/CD
• full-duplex
• FastEthernet
• crossover cable

16. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

17. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
• application
• session
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

18. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
• Logical Link Control
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

19. Where does the MAC address originate?
• DHCP server database
• configured by the administrator
• burned into ROM on the NIC card
• network configuration on the computer
• included in the creation of the processor chip

Module 5 Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. What is the appropriate cable to use at each of the numbered network connections?
• 1-crossover; 2-straight-through; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
• 1-rollover; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
• 1-rollover; 2-straight-through; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through

2. Which two devices are considered OSI Layer 1 devices? (Choose two.)
• hubs
• routers
• bridges
• switches
• repeaters

3. What device is used to connect hosts to an Ethernet LAN and requires a straight-through UTP cable between the hosts and this device?
• NIC
• router
• switch
• server

4. What is the most common type of cabling used in LANs?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

5. In which situations would a crossover cable be used to connect devices in a network? (Choose two.)
• switch to PC
• switch to hub
• switch to router
• switch to server
• switch to switch

6.

Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the network?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 7
• 8

7. What type of cable would be used to make the connection between the console port of a router and a workstation?
• crossover
• rollover
• straight-through
• patch

8.

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• transmission of data
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link
• noise cancellation in transmitted data

9. Which address does a bridge use to make filtering and switching decisions?
• source MAC
• source IP
• destination MAC
• destination IP
• network IP address

10. What is characteristic of how a hub operates?
• A hub selectively drops packets that represent potential security risks.
• A hub forwards data out all interfaces except the inbound interface.
• A hub dynamically learns the interfaces to which all devices are attached.
• At start up, a hub queries the devices on all interfaces in order to learn the MAC addresses of the attached devices.
• A hub transmits a frame to a specific interface based on the destination MAC address.

11. Users with systems that are attached to a hub are complaining about poor response time. What device could replace the hub and provide immediate response time improvement?
• router
• switch
• bridge
• repeater

12. Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)
• centralized security
• easy to create
• very scalable
• no centralized equipment required
• centralized administrator not required
• centralized control of assets

13. Which statement is accurate about a WAN link?
• The link transmits data serially.
• The link uses a maximum distance of 100 meters.
• The link uses the same transmission rate as all other WAN links use.
• The link uses the same standardized connector style that is used for all WAN technologies.

14.

Which items in the exhibit are DTE devices?
• A and B
• B and C
• C and D
• A and D
• A, B, C, and D

15. At which layer of the OSI model does the MAC address of a NIC reside?
• physical
• application
• network
• transport
• data link
• session

16.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician measured the lengths of the CAT 5e structured cable runs in the exhibit. How should the technician evaluate the cabling shown in the diagram to the network administrator?
• All cabling to work areas are within specifications.
• Station A and B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station C may experience intermittent network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.
• Station A and B will have intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station C will not have network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.

17. Which statement describes a typical use of Gigabit Ethernet?
• to provide high-speed desktop connectivity for average users
• to provide connectivity to low to medium volume applications
• to provide medium volume connectivity to workgroup servers
• to provide high-speed connectivity for backbones and cross connects

18.

The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
• crossover
• rollover
• reversed-pair
• straight-through
• split-pair
• console

19.

The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
• console
• crossover
• rollover
• reversed-pair
• split-pair
• straight-through

20. Which of the following are benefits of a wireless network? (Choose two.)
• higher data speeds
• better security
• mobility
• less expensive NIC cards
• no need to run cables to hosts

Module 4 Exam Answers

1. To ensure reliable LAN communications, what should a technician be looking for when attaching connectors to the ends of UTP cable?
• that the white-orange/orange pair is attached first
• That the wire pairs remain twisted as much as possible
• that one end of the shield is properly ground but not the other
• that 50 ohm termination resistors are on both ends

2. Which of the following describes frequency?
• length of each wave
• height of each wave
• number of cycles each second
• amount of time between each wave

3. How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)
• +5 volts/-5 volts
• 0 volts/5 volts
• light/no light
• high to low electrical transition
• low to high electrical transition
• increasing/decreasing light intensity

4. What is expected when crosstalk is present in networks with higher transmission frequencies? (Choose two.)
• jitter
• increase in crosstalk
• higher signal attenuation
• increases in cancellation effect
• destruction of more of the data signal

5. A small company is experiencing difficulties on its LAN. After performing some tests, a technician has determined that the copper media supporting the LAN is experiencing abnormal attenuation. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
• defective connectors
• excessively long cable lengths
• use of higher grade cabling
• low frequency signals used in the media
• network cable runs isolated from other cables

6. What factors need to be considered to limit the amount of signal attenuation in Ethernet cable runs? (Choose two.)
• type of users
• number of users
• length of cable
• type of electrical equipment
• installation of connectors on the cable

7. What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another wire pair? (Choose two.)
• noise
• resistance mismatch
• jitter
• crosstalk
• attenuation

8. What is a cause of crosstalk in UTP cable?
• cable pairs that are shorted
• cable pairs crossed during termination
• cabling runs installed in separate conduit
• cable pairs that are untwisted because of poor termination of the cable

9. Which of the following are detected by the wire map test? (Choose three.)
• near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
• opens
• propagation delay
• return loss
• reversed-pair faults
• short circuits

10. A company needs to extend the LAN to six separate buildings. To limit the amount of signal attenuation on the LAN media, what type of media would be the best to use between the buildings?
• air (wireless)
• coaxial cable
• fiber
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair

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