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Showing posts with label Routing and Switching Introduction to Networks v5.0 Answers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Routing and Switching Introduction to Networks v5.0 Answers. Show all posts

Saturday, February 15, 2014

CCNA 1 v5 Answers - Practice Final Exam Version 5.0 / Routing and Switching Introduction to Networks v5.0 Answers

1. A network administrator has been issued a network address of 192.31.7.64/26. How many subnets of equal size could be created from the assigned /26 network by using a /28 prefix?
4
Remember:
A /26 prefix requires the first 2 bits of the last octet for the network portion. The last octet of the assigned network address (64) is 0100 0000 with the first 2 bits reserved for the network portion. Our beginning values go from 192.31.7.64 through to 192.31.7.127. If we now further subdivide that range using a /28 prefix, we need to borrow 2 more bits. Remember that to remain within the .64 to .127 range, the first two bits MUST remain as 01. Because we have only 2 more bits to work with, there are only 4 different combinations.
192.31.7.64 – 0100 0000
192.31.7.80 – 0101 0000
192.31.7.96 – 0110 00000
192.31.7.112 – 0111 00000
Notice that the subnets increment by 16.
2.What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
It will discard the frame.
3.A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
4.A user is attempting to do an http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)
DNS server
default gateway
5.For which three reasons was a packet-switched connectionless data communications technology used when developing the Internet? (Choose three.)
1. It can rapidly adapt to the loss of data transmission facilities.
2. It efficiently utilizes the network infrastructure to transfer data.
3. Data packets can travel multiple paths through the network simultaneously.
6.Refer to the graphic. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?
It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
7.
R1#config t
R1(config)# enable password Cisco123
R1(config)# enable secret Cisco123
R1(config)# service password-encryption
R1(config)# line con 0
R1(config-line)# password Cisco789
R1(config-line)# end
R1# copy running-config startup-config
R1# reload
Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?
The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.
Remember: Until both the password password and the login commands are entered in console line configuration mode, no password is required to gain access to enable mode.
8.Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?
It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.
9.The administrator of a branch office receives an IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:3000::/52 from the corporate network manager. How many subnets can the administrator create
4096
10.Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
packet switching
path selection
11.Which router configuration mode would an administrator use to configure the router for SSH or Telnet login access?
line
12.Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is attempting to connect to a new router to perform the initial configuration. The engineer connects a rollover cable from the serial port of a PC to the Aux port on the router, then configures HyperTerminal as shown. The engineer cannot get a login prompt in HyperTerminal. What would fix the problem?
Move the cable to the router console port.
13.A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?
The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.
14.Which devices should be secured to mitigate against MAC address spoofing attacks?
Layer 2 devices
15.Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
16.What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination IP address
17.A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?
partial mesh
18.The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?
Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address
19.Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified:
A logical topology diagram typically depicts the IP addressing scheme and groupings of devices and ports. A physical topology diagram shows how those devices are connected to each other and the network, focusing on the physical locations of intermediary devices, configured ports, and cabling.
20.What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
greater bandwidth potential
21.What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)
1. grows in size without impacting existing users
2. suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion
22.Switch# ping 10.1.1.1
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending , 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds: UUUU
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate
A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
Remember:
In the output of the ping command, an exclamation mark (!) indicates a response was successfully received, a period (.) indicates that the connection timed out while waiting for a reply, and the letter “U” indicates that a router along the path did not have a route to the destination and sent an ICMP destination unreachable message back to the source.
23.Fill in the blank using a number.
The minimum Ethernet frame size is______ bytes. Anything smaller than that should be considered a “runt frame.”
64
Remember:
Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 standards define the minimum frame as 64 bytes and the maximum as 1518 bytes.
24.Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. Use lower case.
Which interface configuration mode command puts a Layer 3 switch interface into Layer 3 mode?
no switchport
25.To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged?
The configuration should have been copied to the running configuration instead.
26.Which is a function of the show ip route command when used as a tool for troubleshooting network connectivity?
shows the IP address of the next hop router for each route
27.A small satellite office has been given the overall network number of 192.168.99.0/24 and the network technician can subdivide the network addresses as needed. The office needs network access for both wired and wireless devices. However, because of the security consideration, these two networks should be separate. The wired network will have 20 devices. The wireless network has a potential connection of 45 devices. Which addressing scheme would be most efficient for these two networks?
192.168.99.0/26
192.168.99.64/27
Remember:
Always calculate the biggest number of host devices first. To accommodate 45 devices, 6 host bits must be left because 26 = 64 (but two addresses cannot be used). The network number for the 45-device network is 192.168.99.0/26. The broadcast address is 192.168.99.63. Keep in mind that addresses 192.168.99.1 through 192.168.99.62 are for devices. The next network number is 192.168.99.64 for the 20-device wired network. To accommodate 20 devices, 5 bits must be left for host bits because 25 = 32 (but two addresses cannot be used. The mask would be /27 or 255.255.255.224.
28.What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?
synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer
29.A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
physical layer
30.A nibble consists of ______ bits.
4
31.What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
1. using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table
2. utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address
32.Why are the paired wires twisted in a CAT5 cable?
to provide eletromagnetic noise cancellation
33.Match the subnetwork to host address that would be included within the subnetwork
Subnet 192.168.1.32/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.33 – 192.168.1.62 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.63
Subnet 192.168.1.64/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.65 – 192.168.1.94 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.95
Subnet 192.168.1.96/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.97 – 192.168.1.126 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.127
34.Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the secret keyword that is displayed on the web page?
packet
35.Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)
1. The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
2. The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.
Remember:The IPv6 packet header fields are as follows: Version, Traffic Class, Flow Label, Payload Length, Next Header, Hop Limit, Source Address, and Destination Address. The IPv4 packet header fields include the following: Version, Differentiated Services, Time-to-Live, Protocol, Source IP Address, and Destination IP Address. Both versions have a 4-bit Version field. Both versions have a Source (IP) Address field. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits; IPv6 addresses are 128 bits. The Time-to-Live or TTL field in IPv4 is now called Hop Limit in IPv6, but this field serves the same purpose in both versions. The value in this 8-bit field decrements each time a packet passes through any router. When this value is 0, the packet is discarded and is not forwarded to any other router.
36.Match each description with the appropriate type of threat
Electrical threats: brownouts
Hardware threat: physical damage to routers
Maintenance threat: poor cabling of the network infrastructure
37.Fill in the blank.
In dotted decimal notation, the IP address ___________ is the last host address for the network 172.25.0.64/26
10101100.00011001.00000000.01000000
38.Which service will translate private internal IP addresses into Internet routable public IP addresses?
NAT
39.A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.
40.Which two types of applications rely on their traffic having priority over other traffic types through the network? (Choose two.)
video
voice
41.What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
global routing prefix
subnet ID
interface ID
42.What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
43.A PC that is communicating with a web server is utilizing a window size of 6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. What byte of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received four packets of data from the PC?
6001
44.Refer to the exhibit. Which layer of the OSI model would format data in this way?
data link
45.A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the network after startup and that a popup window says “This connection has limited or no connectivity.” The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?
The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.
46.Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings could be changed to improve security on the wireless network? (Choose two.)
SSID
SSID broadcast
47.Which IPv6 address notation is valid?
2001:DB8:0:1111::200
48.What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)
- to identify missing segments at the destination
- to reassemble the segments at the remote location
49.What three statements describe features or functions of media access control? (Choose three.)
It is responsible for detecting transmission errors in transmitted data.
Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.
50.Authorized access only!
Router>
Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?
The delimiting character appears in the banner message.
51.Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
52.What is an ISP?
It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.
53.Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.
A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB.
Remember:In order to send data to ServerB, HostA will generate a packet that contains the IP address of the destination device on the remote network and a frame that contains the MAC address of the default gateway device on the local network.
54.Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network in order to minimize address waste?
255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252
55.Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which information is obtained from this command output?
10.20.20.3, non-authoritative answer
56.What is the function of CSMA/CA in a WLAN?
It provides the mechanism for media access.
57.A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?
leased line

CCNA 1 v5 Answers - Module 11 Exam Version 5.0 / Routing and Switching Introduction to Networks v5.0 Answers

1
Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?
Internet router
firewall
low port density switch
redundancy
Small businesses today do need Internet access and use an Internet router to provide this need. A switch is required to connect the two host devices and any IP phones or network devices such as a printer or a scanner. The switch may be integrated into the router. A firewall is needed to protect the business computing assets. Redundancy is not normally found in very small companies, but slightly larger small companies might use port density redundancy or have redundant Internet providers/links.

2
Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?
SNMP
TCP
PoE
RTP
SNMP is a management protocol. TCP is not suitable for the rapid delivery of streaming media. PoE is not a protocol, but a standardized system that allows Ethernet cables to carry power to a device.

3
How should traffic flow be captured in order to best understand traffic patterns in a network?
during low utilization times
during peak utilization times
when it is on the main network segment only
when it is from a subset of users
Capturing traffic during low utilization time will not give a good representation of the different traffic types. Because some traffic could be local to a particular segment, the capture must be done on different network segments.

4
What do WLANs that conform to IEEE 802.11 standards allow wireless users to do?
connect wireless hosts to hosts or services on a wired Ethernet network

5
Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful attack on an email server account? (Choose two.)
Never send the password through the network in a clear text.
Never use passwords that need the Shift key.
Never allow physical access to the server console.
Only permit authorized access to the server room.
Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.
One of the most common types of access attack uses a packet sniffer to yield user accounts and passwords that are transmitted as clear text. Repeated attempts to log in to a server to gain unauthorized access constitute another type of access attack. Limiting the number of attempts to log in to the server and using encrypted passwords will help prevent successful logins through these types of access attack.

6
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
R1

7
Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the network administrator?
Something is causing a time delay between the networks

8
A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?
The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.
Remember:
The show cdp neighbors command can be used to prove that Layer 1 and Layer 2 connectivity exists between two Cisco devices. For example, if two devices have duplicate IP addresses, a ping between the devices will fail, but the output of show cdp neighbors will be successful. The show cdp neighbors detail could be used to verify the IP address of the directly connected device in case the same IP address is assigned to the two routers.

9
What is the purpose of issuing the commands cd nvram: then dir at the privilege exec mode of a router?
to list the content of the NVRAM

10
When should an administrator establish a network baseline?
when the traffic is at peak in the network
when there is a sudden drop in traffic
at the lowest point of traffic in the network
at regular intervals over a period of time
An effective network baseline can be established by monitoring the traffic at regular intervals. This allows the administrator to take note when any deviance from the established norm occurs in the network.

11
A network administrator has determined that various computers on the network are infected with a worm. Which sequence of steps should be followed to mitigate the worm attack?
containment, inoculation, quarantine, and treatment

12
A network administrator checks the security log and notices there was unauthorized access to an internal file server over the weekend. Upon further investigation of the file system log, the administrator notices several important documents were copied to a host located outside of the company. What kind of threat is represented in this scenario?
information theft

13
Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?​
The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity​.
To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.
CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface​.
Because it runs at the data link layer​, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.
CDP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that can be disabled globally by using the no cdp run global configuration command, or disabled on a specific interface, by using the no cdp enable interface configuration command. Because CDP operates at the data link layer, two or more Cisco network devices, such as routers can learn about each other even if Layer 3 connectivity does not exist. The show cdp neighbors detail command reveals the IP address of a neighboring device regardless of whether you can ping the neighbor.

14
Which type of network attack involves the disabling or corruption of networks, systems, or services?
denial of service attacks

15
If a configuration file is saved to a USB flash drive attached to a router, what must be done by the network administrator before the file can be used on the router?
Convert the file system from FAT32 to FAT16.
Edit the configuration file with a text editor.
Change the permission on the file from ro to rw.
Use the dir command from the router to remove the Windows automatic alphabetization of the files on the flash drive.

16
Which command will backup the configuration that is stored in NVRAM to a TFTP server?
copy running-config tftp
copy tftp running-config
copy startup-config tftp
copy tftp startup-config
The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM, and the running configuration is stored in RAM. The copy command is followed by the source, then the destination.

17
Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
responsible for determining the signal strength
all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

18
What is a security feature of using NAT on a network?
allows internal IP addresses to be concealed from external users

19
Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA

20
Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Some RF channels provide automatic encryption of wireless data.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

21
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The show version command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of the software configuration register.​
The show version command that is issued on a router displays the value of the configuration register, the Cisco IOS version being used, and the amount of flash memory on the device, among other information.​

22
Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful attack on an email server account? (Choose two.)
Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.
Never send the password through the network in a clear text.


23
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The show file systems command provides information about the amount of available and free flash memory and its permissions for reading or writing data.
The show file systems command lists all of the available file systems on a Cisco router. It provides useful information such as the amount of available and free memory of flash and nvram, and its access permissions that include read only (ro), write only (wo), and read and write (rw).​

24
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
How long will a user be blocked if the user exceeds the maximum allowed number of unsuccessful login attempts?
1 minute
2 minutes
3 minutes
4 minutes
The timeout duration for login attempts is set by the login block-for 180 attempts 4 within 60 command. This command sets the login block at 180 seconds (3 minutes) after 4 in attempts within a 60 second time period. This command can be viewed in the running configuration file.
25.
This item is the drag and drop matching steps.
Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
step 5
step 2
step 4
step 1
step 3

CCNA 1 v5 Answers - Module 10 Exam Version 5.0 / Routing and Switching Introduction to Networks v5.0 Answers

1. Select three protocols that operate at the Application Layer of the OSI model. (Choose three.)
POP3
DHCP
FTP

ARP
TCP
DSL

2.

3. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
FTP
HTTP
SMTP

DNS
SNMP
DHCP

4.
Match the DNS record type to the corresponding description
A – end device address
NS – authoritative name server
CNAME – canonical name
MX – mail exchange record


5. Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?
a program that is running on an FTP server
a diagnostic FTP program
a program that is running on an FTP client
an application that is used to request data from an FTP server

6.Which two actions are taken by SMTP if the destination email server is busy when email messages are sent? (Choose two.)
SMTP periodically checks the queue for messages and attempts to send them again
SMTP tries to send the messages at a later time

SMTP sends an error message back to the sender and closes the connection.
SMTP will discard the message if it is still not delivered after a predetermined expiration time.
SMTP sends the messages to another mail server for delivery.

7.When would it be more efficient to use SMB to transfer files instead of FTP?
when downloading large numbers of files from the same server
when downloading large files with a variety of formats from different servers
when a peer-to-peer application is required
when the host devices on the network use the Windows operating system
when uploading the same file to multiple remote servers

8. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?
A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.
A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.
A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.

9. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?
Clients establish a long term connection to servers.
Different SMB message types have a different format.
SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.

10.
Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying the name servers?
nslookup
A user can manually query the name servers to resolve
a given host name using the nslookup command.​
Nslookup is both a command and a utility.​

11. Which DNS server in the DNS hierarchy would be considered authoritative for the domain name records of a company named netacad?
netacad.com
mx.netacad.com
www.netacad.com
.com

12. A user accessed the game site www.nogamename.com last week. The night before the user accesses the game site again, the site administrator changes the site IP address. What will be the consequence of that action for the user?
The user will access the site without problems.
The user will not be able to access the site.
The user will have to modify the DNS server address on the local PC in order to access the site.
The user will have to issue a ping to this new IP address to be sure that the domain name remained the same.

13.
Match the purpose with its DHCP message type
DHCPREQUEST – a message that is used to identify the explicit server and lease offer to accept
DHCPDISCOVER – a message that is used to locate any available DHCP server on the network
DHCPOFFER – a message that is used to suggest a lease to a client
DHCPACK – a message that is used to acknowledge that the lease is successful


14. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
resource sharing without a dedicated server
decentralized resources

scalable
one way data flow
centralized user accounts

15. Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
session layer
application layer
presentation layer

physical layer
transport layer
data link layer

16. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
Messages are kept in the mail servers until the client manually deletes them.
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.

17. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?
HTTP
DNS
DHCP
SMTP
POP3

18. A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPREQUEST

DHCPACK
DHCPOFFER
DHCPNAK

19.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?
PC_2
PC_3
PC_1
PC_1 and PC_3

20. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.

The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.

21. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
Compression
Encryption

addressing
session control
authentication

22. What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server?
HTTPS
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
is the protocol that is used for accessing or
posting web server information using a secure communication channel.

CCNA 1 v5 Answers - Module 9 Exam Version 5.0 / Routing and Switching Introduction to Networks v5.0 Answers

1.
Refer to the exhibit. A computer that is configured with the IPv6 address as shown in the exhibit is unable to access the internet. What is the problem?
The gateway address is in the wrong subnet.
The DNS address is wrong.
There should not be an alternative DNS address.
The settings were not validated.

2.When subnetting a /64 IPv6 network prefix, which is the preferred new prefix?
/72
/66
/70
/74

3.Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)
/64
/68

/62
/66
/70

4.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What issue is causing Host A to be unable to communicate with Host B
Host A and host B are on overlapping subnets
The subnet mask of host A is incorrect.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway.
The IP address of host B is not in the same subnet as the default gateway is on.

5.Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix for the range of addresses is __________________
/60
Remember:
All the addresses have the part 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A in common. Each number or letter in the address represents 4 bits, so the prefix is /60


6.Fill in the blank.
In dotted decimal notation, the subnet mask_________ will accommodate 500 hosts per subnet.
255.255.254.0
Remember:
If the network has to accommodate 500 hosts per subnet, then we need 9 host bits
(2^9 – 2 = 510 hosts). The Class B subnet mask has 16 bits available and if we use 9 bits for hosts, we will have 7 network bits remaining.The subnet mask with 9 host bits is 11111111.11111111.11111110.00000000, which corresponds to 255.255.254.0.

7.
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many addresses are wasted in total by subnetting each network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224?
72
56
60
64
68
Remember:
The network IP address 192.168.5.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 provides 30 usable IP addresses for each subnet. Subnet A needs 30 host addresses. There are no addresses wasted. Subnet B uses 2 of the 30 available IP addresses, because it is a serial link. Consequently, it wastes 28 addresses. Likewise, subnet C wastes 28 addresses. Subnet D needs 14 addresses, so it wastes 16 addresses. The total wasted addresses are 0+28+28+16=72 addresses

8.In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?
/25
/23
/24
/26
Remember:
Prefix /25 means that 7 bits are reserved for the host address range, which is 2^7-2=126. This is the best option to accommodate 100 hosts with the least waste of IP addresses. /23 gives 2^9-2=510 host addresses, a waste of 410 addresses. /24 gives 2^8-2=254 hosts, wasting 154 host addresses. /26 gives 2^6-2=62 host addresses, not enough to accommodate 100 hosts.

9.Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)
It eliminates most address configuration errors
It reduces the burden on network support staff

It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.

10.Fill in the blank.
In dotted decimal notation, the IP address_______ is the last host address for the network 172.25.0.64/26.
172.25.0.126
Remember:
The binary representation of the network address 172.25.0.64 is 10101100.00011001.00000000.01000000, where the last six zeros represent the host part of the address. The last address on that subnet would have the host part equal to 111111, and the last host address would end in 111110. This results in a binary representation of the last host of the IP address as 10101100.00011001.00000000.01111110, which translates in decimal to 172.25.0.126.

11.When developing an IP addressing scheme for an enterprise network, which devices are recommended to be grouped into their own subnet or logical addressing group?
hosts accessible from the internet
end-user clients
workstation clients
mobile and laptop hosts
Remember:
Hosts that are accessible from the Internet require public IP addresses. End-user clients, mobile and laptop hosts, and workstation clients are internal network devices that would be assigned private IP addresses.

12.
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there?
1
2
3
4

13.How many usable host addresses are there in the subnet 192.168.1.32/27?
32
30
64
16
62

14.A nibble consists of _______ bits
four

15.How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?
510
512
1022
1024
2046
2048
Remember:
A mask of 255.255.252.0 is equal to a prefix of /22. A /22 prefix provides 22 bits for the network portion and leaves 10 bits for the host portion. The 10 bits in the host portion will provide 1022 usable IP addresses (210 – 2 = 1022).

16.A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?
random static addresses to improve security
addresses from different subnets for redundancy
predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

17.How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks?
two
three
four
five

18.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address.
Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?
IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1
Remember:
Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3)
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)

19.What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
2001:DB8:BC15::0
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
Remember:
The network and subnet fields cover 64 bits. This means that the first 4 groups of hexadecimal digits represent the network and subnet fields. The first address within that range is 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0

20.
Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
Remember:
The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.

21.A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.64/27
192.168.1.96/28

192.168.1.16/28
192.168.1.128/27
192.168.1.192/28
Remember:
Subnet 192.168.1.64 /27 has 5 bits that are allocated for host addresses and therefore will be able to support 32 addresses, but only 30 valid host IP addresses. Subnet 192.168.1.96/28 has 4 bits for host addresses and will be able to support 16 addresses, but only 14 valid host IP addresses

22.A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.248. How many host addresses will this subnet provide?​
4
6
8
10
12
Remember:
The mask 255.255.255.248 is equivalent to the /29 prefix. This leaves 3 bits for hosts, providing a total of 6 usable IP addresses (23 = 8 – 2 = 6).

23.
Refer to the exhibit. Match the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements.
Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.


24.Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork
Subnet 192.168.1.32/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.33 – 192.168.1.62 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.63
Subnet 192.168.1.64/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.65 – 192.168.1.94 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.95
Subnet 192.168.1.96/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.97 – 192.168.1.126 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.127