CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 6 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
• show ip route
• show ip rip
• debug ip rip
• show ip protocols
• show ip rip database

2. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
• to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
• to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
• to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
• to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
• to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

3. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
• Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
• Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
• Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
• Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

4. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
• Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
• Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
• Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
• Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
• In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.

5. Consider this routing table entry R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1 What type of route is this?
• a static route
• a default route
• a RIP route
• an OSPF route
• an EIGRP route
• a directly-connected route

6. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
• router# show ip address
• router# show ip route
• router# show ip networks
• router# show ip interface brief
• router# debug ip protocol
• router# debug rip update

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

8. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
• AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
• Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
• ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
• All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

9. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address

10. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
• show ip rip database


11. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
• in 30 seconds
• in 60 seconds
• in 90 seconds
• Immediately

12. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
• Ping
• show arp
• Traceroute
• show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

13. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v2

14. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
• metric
• subnet mask
• area identification
• hop count
• autonomous system number

15. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?
• show version
• show ip route
• show interface
• show ip protocols

16. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
• border gateway router
• DSLAM
• web server
• interior router

17. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP

18. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
• They are created in interface configuration mode.
• They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
• They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
• They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
• They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

19. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
• a home business with one ISP connection
• a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
• a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
• a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
• a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

20. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
• Internet
• intranet
• virtual private network
• autonomous system

21. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.


22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
• 14
• 15
• 16
• 17

23. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
• when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
• when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
• when more than one interior routing protocol is used
• when the company uses two or more ISPs


24. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
• routerA(config-router)# no version 2
• routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
• routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
• routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
• routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 5 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores the startup configuration file
• contains the running configuration file
• stores the ARP table

2. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface
• Ethernet interface
• secret EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• router configuration mode

3. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
• blinks rapidly amber
• blinks rapidly green
• steady amber
• steady green


4. Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
• virtual terminal only
• enable mode only
• console and virtual terminal only
• enable mode and virtual terminal
• only the service password
• all configured passwords

5. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
• Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A

6. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
• Tab
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-N
• Up Arrow
• Right Arrow
• Down Arrow

7. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
• Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
• Set the command history buffer size. • Recall previously entered commands.
• Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

8. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
• host name
• DHCP options
• domain name
• interface IP addresses
• enable secret password
• DNS server IP addresses

9. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
• router# show running-config
• router# show startup-config
• router# show flash
• router# show version

10. Which command turns on a router interface?
• Router(config-if)# enable
• Router(config-if)# no down
• Router(config-if)# s0 active
• Router(config-if)# interface up
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown


11. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• transmission of data
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link
• noise cancellation in transmitted data

12. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
• All router commands are available.
• Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
• A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
• Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
• Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

13. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
• global configuration mode
• setup mode
• ROM monitor mode
• user EXEC mode

14. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
• Easy IP (IP negotiated)
• IP unnumbered
• No IP address
• HDLC encapsulation
• Frame Relay encapsulation
• PPP encapsulation

15. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• console
• AUX
• Telnet
• modem


16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65

17. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
• host name
• domain name
• DHCP address pool
• DNS server IP address

18. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks

19. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
• The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
• There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
• The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
• The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

20. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC
• PAP
• PPP


21. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

22. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• platform
• routing protocol
• connected interface of neighbor device
• device ID
• IP addresses of all interfaces
• enable mode password

23. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
• SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
• SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
• SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
• SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
• SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration


24. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
• Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
• Telnet to the switch from the router console.
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
• The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.


25. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 3 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• user workstations
• switches and routers
• fax machines
• network equipment racks
• the point of presence
• copier

2. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• repeater
• hub
• router
• switch

3. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
• A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
• A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
• Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
• The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
• The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.

4. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
• unlabeled cables
• only two power outlets per wall in each room
• poor physical security of network devices
• horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
• lack of UPS for critical devices
• two users sharing the same computer

5. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• backbone area
• point of presence
• network distribution facility
• intermediate distribution frame


6. Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• hub
• router
• switch
• access point

7. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• fiber optic


8. to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
• A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight

9. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• does not require leasing costs for service
• can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• eliminates the need for data backup
• increases availability of help desk services
• does not require a Service Level Agreement

10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
• a networking device with a modular physical configuration
• a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
• a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible

11. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
• upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
• investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• document the final design for approval by the customer
• perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

12. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• serial cable
• rollover cable
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• patch cable
• console cable

13. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any obsolete office equipment being stored
• all product keys for site license software
• any planned growth anticipated in the near future
• the memory requirements for installed application software

14. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
• An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
• ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
• An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
• ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.

15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
• Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
• Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
• Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
• Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.

16. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
• to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
• to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
• to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements

17. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• MDF
• POP
• IDF
• IXP

18. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
• The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
• Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
• Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
• The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.

19. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
• the path that the data takes through a network
• the wireless signal coverage area
• the wiring closet and access point locations
• the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

20. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• faster communication speeds
• improved physical security
• more resistant to hacker attempts
• centralized cable management
• less electrical usage

21. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• scalability
• manageability
• compatibility
• reliability