CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

1. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

3. Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-LX

4. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

5. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

6. Which RJ-45 pins are used to transmit and receive data in an Ethernet 100BASE-TX Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two
• 1 and 2
• 3 and 6
• 4 and 5
• 7 and 8

7. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule

8. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

9. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

10. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

CCNA 1 - Practice Final Exam Aswers

CCNA 1 - Practice Final Exam Aswers

1. How is a MAC address represented?
• four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
• four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
• six hexadecimal digits
• twelve hexadecimal digits
• twenty-four Base10 digits

2. During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
• bit speed
• attenuation
• wire map
• saturation limit
• analog bandwidth

3. If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
• ASCII
• TFTP
• IMAP
• FTP
• UDP

4. Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Proxy RARP

5. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable

6. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11c
• 802.11d

7. For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
• inter-building connection
• mid-length voice
• video conferencing
• vertical wiring
• horizontal wiring
• diagonal wiring

8. The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
• anonymous FTP servers
• telnet sessions
• video over IP applications
• NAS services
• ARP requests
• RIP updates

9. Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?
• the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
• the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
• the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
• the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously

10. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
• session

11. Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
• www
• http://
• /teacher
• awsb.ca

12. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)
• a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
• a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
• a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
• a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
• a control connection between the client and server

13. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?
• 25
• 15
• 10
• 5
• 2

14. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?
• bit
• frame
• packet
• segment

15. Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)
• configuring the e-mail client
• installing NIC drivers
• configuring IP network settings
• connecting the network cable
• using FTP to download application software updates

16. Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
• It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
• It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
• It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
• It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.

17. Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
• 52.2 seconds
• 21.3 seconds
• 6.4 seconds
• 2 seconds
• 0.075 seconds
• 0.0375 seconds

18. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
• ping 10.10.10.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ping 127.0.0.1
• ping 223.223.223.223
• ping 255.255.255.255

19. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• handles representation, encoding and dialog control
• uses TCP and UDP protocols
• packet switching
• reliability, flow control and error correction

20. Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.39.1
• 111.9.28.30
• 123.1.2.132
• 128.50.38.2
• 105.1.34.1
• 0.23.92.3

21. A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240

22. An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

23. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

24. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 6

25. Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)
• transistor
• microprocessor
• power supply
• capacitor
• light emitting diode
• hard disk

26. Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?
• encapsulation
• latency
• segmentation
• layered model
• broadcast domain
• extended

27. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224

28. "CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
• MAC request
• ARP request
• ping
• Telnet
• proxy ARP

29. In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
• coaxial
• screened twisted pair
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair
• fiber optic

30. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet

31. What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
• The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
• The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
• Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
• The maximum frame length is 10 octets.

32. Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)
• frame format
• media
• connectors
• timing
• multi-part encoding

33. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 156
• 158
• 160
• 162
• 164
• 166

34. Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
• File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
• Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
• Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
• Internet Protocol (IP)
• User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
• Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

35. What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?
• a transducer
• a transmitter
• a transceiver
• a transponder
• a port replicator

36. Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
• government
• education
• network
• non-profit


37. What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
• a fault
• a short
• an open
• a split
• a good map

38. What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
• It links data to the transport layer.
• It encapsulates frames into packets.
• It provides a service to the network layer.
• It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
• Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
• It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.

39. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule

40. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)
• neutral and neutral
• neutral and positive
• neutral and negative
• positive and positive
• positive and negative
• negative and negative

41. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
• 1022
• 510
• 254
• 126
• 30
• 6

42. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?
• session
• transport
• network
• data link

43. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)
• between workstation and backbone switch
• between individual workstations
• between backbone switches
• between enterprise server and switch
• on aggregate access links

44. Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)
• TFTP
• SNMP
• POP3
• SMTP
• IMAP4
• postoffice

45. John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John's inexperience?
• collision domain extended
• an increased number of collision domains
• increased network performance
• increased bandwidth
• extended bandwidth

46. Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
• file size
• data format
• network in use
• type of medium
• bandwidth of the link

47. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

48. Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)
• glass fibers
• copper
• gold
• plastic
• silicon
• silver

49. Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
• DNS
• WINS
• DHCP
• Telnet

50. Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• resolve routing loops
• eliminate Split Horizon errors
• limit collisions
• resolve switching loops

CCNA 1 - Cisco Final Exam Aswers

CCNA 1 - Cisco Final Exam Aswers

1. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?
• bus
• star
• ring
• mesh

2. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)
• DSL
• Token Ring
• Frame Relay
• ISDN
• Ethernet


3. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?
• The IP address of Host A is incorrect.
• The subnet mask of Host A is incorrect.
• The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.
• Host A is properly configured. Some other problem exists in the internetwork.


4. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)
• link A
• link B
• link C
• link D
• link E

5. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?
• Datagram retransmission requires user authentication.
• Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.
• Datagram retransmission relies on the acknowledgements at transport layer.
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the source host.

6. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?
• 0.24 Mbps
• 4.17 Mbps
• 10 Mbps
• 24 Mbps
• 100 Mbps
• 200 Mbps

7. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?
• three
• four
• five
• six
• eight
• ten


8. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?
• Only workstation B and the router will receive the data.
• Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.
• Only workstations connected to the hub will receive the data.
• Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data and it will be forwarded into the Internet.

9. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?
• Layers 1 and 2 only
• Layers 1 and 3 only
• Layers 1, 2 and 3
• Layer 1 through Layer 7
• Layer 4 through Layer 7

10. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• hub
• switch
• router
• repeater

11. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?
• 224
• 240
• 248
• 252
• 254


12. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?
• A=straight, B=rollover, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=rollover, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
• A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=straight
• A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=straight, B=crossover, C=rollover, D=straight, E=straight


13. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
• Both cables are acceptable.
• The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
• The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.
• The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.

14. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)
• security used on the network
• media used on the network system
• bus used on the computer
• software installed on the network
• diagnostic tools installed on the network


15. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
• IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
• IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
• IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
• IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
• IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
• IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18


16. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?
• Diagram A. It provides the hosts with full-duplex connections.
• Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.
• Diagram B. It extends the collision domain.
• Diagram B. It prevents the frames from looping.
• Either network will perform equally well.

17. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
• application
• session
• transport
• network
• data link


18. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight

19. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)
• to connect a router to a switch
• to connect a switch to a switch
• to connect a host to a switch
• to connect a hub to a switch
• to connect a router to a hub
• to connect a host to a hub

20. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?
• host address
• subnetwork address
• broadcast address
• multicast address


21. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)
• the MAC address of the file server
• the MAC address of the PADI router interface connected to Switch A
• the IP address of Switch A
• a unique host IP address
• the subnet mask for the LAN
• the default gateway address

22. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?
• A switch manages frames faster than a hub does.
• A switch operates at 100 Mbps. A hub operates at a maximum of 10 Mbps.
• A switch modifies the Ethernet frame to remove any errors. A hub forwards the frame exactly as it arrived.
• A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.

23. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?
• It places requirements on all vendors that develop proprietary networking technologies for advance networking systems.
• It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.
• The International Organization for Standards develops all new products to be incorporated into the product.
• It is mandated by the International Organization for Standardization that network products be compliant with the OSI model.


24. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?
• The switch sends its MAC address to each host.
• The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.
• Each host exchanges MAC addresses with each other.
• The switch listens for data traffic to block since the switch lacks an IP address.


25. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
• Cable A
• Cable B
• Cable C
• Cable D


26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source MAC address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

27. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?
• The host discards the frame.
• The host processes the data frame normally.
• The host initiates a request for retransmission of the frame
• The host sends the frame content to an upper layer protocol for error recovery.

28. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?
• hub
• router
• switch
• bridge

29. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?
• All source MAC addresses must be manually configured in CAM.
• The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.
• The switch reads the destination MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.
• If a switch port is full duplex, the switch reads both the source and destination MAC addresses on incoming frames and records them in CAM.


30. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
• bits, segments, frames, packets, data
• bits, frames, packets, segments, data
• bits, frames, segments, packets, data
• bits, packets, frames, segments, data


31. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)
• switch
• hub
• bridge
• router
• repeater

32. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)
• provides windowing
• provides reliability
• uses port numbers
• acknowledges receipt of data
• classified as a connectionless protocol
• classified as a transport layer protocol


33. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
• 00-06-5B-88-DF-C3
• 00-B0-D0-7F-F7-46
• 00-0F-24-85-75-C0
• 00-0B-E5-64-BD-44
• 00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
• 00-08-A3-B6-CE-03

34. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?
• static routes
• dynamic routing protocols
• only default routes
• none. No routing is necessary.

35. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176

36. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?
• 6 networks / 64 hosts
• 14 networks / 32 hosts
• 14 networks / 14 hosts
• 30 networks / 64 hosts

37. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

38. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?
• session
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical


39. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
• session
• presentation


40. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?
• segments 1 and 2
• segments 1, 2, and 3
• segments 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
• segments 2 and 3
• segments 3, 4, and 5
• segments 4, and 5

41. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.192.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.192.0.0
• 240.0.0.0
• 255.0.0.0


42. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?
• rollover cable
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• console cable

43. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
• 1 and 2; 4 and 5
• 1 and 2; 3 and 6
• 3 and 6; 7 and 8
• 4 and 5; 7 and 8


44. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252


45. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
• rollover
• console
• crossover
• straight-through

46. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
• TFTP
• IP
• TCP
• UDP
• DNS


47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?
• Workstation 1 and Workstation 2 are on the same subnet.
• The serial connections are using addresses from the LAN subnets.
• Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.
• If routers are used in the network, IP addresses do not need to be subnetted.

48. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?
• crossover
• rollover
• straight-through
• console

49. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It is a media access method used in LANs.
• It is a media access method used in FDDI WANs.
• When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.
• A device sends data without checking media availability because all devices have equal access.
• Multiple devices can successfully transmit simultaneously.
• Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.

CCNA 1 - Module 11 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module 11 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

1. What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?
• The web browser needs to locate the www server.
• The address is located on a site whose name is http.
• The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.
• The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.

2. Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer between two hosts?
• Application
• Presentation
• Session
• Transport

3. What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)
• port numbers
• checksum values
• authentication keys
• sequence numbers
• encryption algorithms
• acknowledgment numbers

4. FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?
• TFTP
• TCP
• DNS
• IP
• UDP

5. If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are being used?
• UDP, connection-oriented
• UDP, connectionless
• TCP, connection-oriented
• TCP, connectionless

6. What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?
• indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
• reassemble the segments into the correct order
• identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
• track different conversations crossing the network at the same time

7. Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• end-to-end connectivity
• flow control
• security control
• data representation
• encryption of data

8. Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?
• FTP
• SMTP
• SNMP
• DNS
• HTTP
• WWW

9. TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?
• TCP uses only LAN connections.
• TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
• TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
• TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.

10. Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?
• SMTP
• SNMP
• FTP
• TFTP
• EIGRP

11. Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)
• 19
• 20
• 21
• 22

12. Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?
• FTP
• TFTP
• SNMP
• TCP
• DHCP

13. What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
• no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
• connection-oriented
• provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
• reliability provided by the application layer
• connectionless
• utilizes sliding windowing techniques

14. When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
• network
• application
• session
• transport

15. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP

CCNA 1 - Module 10 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module 10 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics


1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 ?C 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
• The LAN is being addressed properly.
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

2. How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?
• The number of switches must increase.
• The collisions prevent the copying of data.
• The broadcasts are contained within a subnet.
• The number of host IP addresses is increased.


3. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1


4. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
• The configuration will work as planned.
• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
• The default gateway of host A is a network address.
• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.

5. Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses from router to router? (Choose two.)
• Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
• Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
• Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.

6. Which address is a valid subnet if a 26 bit mask is used for subnetting?
• 172.16.43.16
• 172.16.128.32
• 172.16.243.64
• 172.16.157.96
• 172.16.47.224
• 172.16.192.252

7. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

8. Which type of routing uses manual entry of information and does not scale well in large internetworks?
• interior
• exterior
• static
• dynamic


9. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

10. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?
• A subnet mask is not necessary when a default gateway is specified.
• A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.
• A subnet mask is used to determine in which subnet an IP address belongs.
• A subnet mask is used to separate the 48-bit address into the OUI and the vendor serial number.

11. At which layer of the OSI model does the device reside that is functioning as the default gateway for hosts on a network?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 7


12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

14. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62

15. What is the primary purpose of a routing protocol?
• to propagate broadcast messages
• to map IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to switch traffic to all available interfaces
• sharing network information between routers


16. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

17. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
• static routes
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

18. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

19. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0


20. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

21. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

22. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

23. Which device would add security to a network by not forwarding broadcasts?
• hub
• router
• switch
• bridge
• repeater


24. Refer to the exhibit. A student in the Cisco network class has designed a small office network to enable hosts to access the Internet. What recommendation should the teacher provide to the student in regards to the network design?
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a hub.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a router.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a bridge.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a transceiver.

25. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

CCNA 1 - Module 9/10 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module 9/10 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics


1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
• The host received the IP address from a DHCP-enabled device on the local LAN segment.
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

2. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0


3. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.


4. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers


5. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• e host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

6. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

7. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

8. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252


9. Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0
• 225.1.5.0

10. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

11. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

12. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192


13. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

14. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
• to assign a MAC address to a host


15. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
• The configuration will work as planned.
• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
• The default gateway of host A is a network address.
• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.


16. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234


17. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

18. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

19. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

20. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23


21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 ?C 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
• The LAN is being addressed properly.
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

22. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

23. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
• static routes
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

24. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.


25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

CCNA 1 - Module 9 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module 9 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

1. Why were private IP addresses developed?
• to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses
• to permit the duplication of public IP addresses
• to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses
• to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks
• to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses


2. Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0
• 225.1.5.0

3. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.


4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
• The host received the IP address from a DHCP-enabled device on the local LAN segment.
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

5. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

6. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

7. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
• to assign a MAC address to a host


8. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

9. ich IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

10. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255

11. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

12. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23

13. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

14. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

15. What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)
• The originating host dynamically issues an arp ?Ca command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network receives this packet.
• The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its MAC address back to the originating host.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the originating host with its MAC address.

16. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

17. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0


18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown in the exhibit?
• to configure the computer to use ARP
• to configure the computer to use DHCP
• to configure the computer to use a routing protocol
• to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address

19. When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the destination MAC address of a remote host?
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination
• sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway

20. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

CCNA 1 - Module 8 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module 8 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

1. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?
• bridge
• hub
• router
• transceiver

2. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?
• The frame is a runt frame.
• The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
• The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
• The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.

3. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?
• hub
• router
• switch
• repeater

4. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• bridge
• hub
• switch
• repeater

5. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
• hub
• Layer 2 switch
• router
• bridge
• repeater

6. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• hub
• switch
• router
• repeater


7. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?
• 1
• 2
• 5
• 12
• 13
• 15

8. What is the function of a Layer 2 switch?
• forwards data based on logical addressing
• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
• determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address

9. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?
• discard frame
• ignore frame
• send frame to appropriate port
• send frame to all ports except source port


10. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router


11. Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?
• segments 1 and 2
• segment 2
• segments 3 and 4
• segments 2, 3, and 4
• segments 1, 2, 3, and 4

12. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?
• bridging
• segmentation
• Address Resolution Protocol
• Spanning-Tree Protocol

13. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)
• switch
• repeater
• router
• bridge
• hub

14. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)
• A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
• A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
• A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
• A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN.
• A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.
• The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.


15. Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct the problem?
• Replace the hub with a switch.
• Replace the hub with a router.
• Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
• Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.

CCNA 1 - Module 6/7 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics

CCNA 1 - Module 6/7 Exam Version 3.1 Networking Basics


1. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

2. Where does the MAC address originate?
• DHCP server database
• configured by the administrator
• burned into ROM on the NIC card
• network configuration on the computer
• included in the creation of the processor chip


3. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
• The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
• e frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
• e frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
• The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.

4. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 7

5. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?
• serial and ISDN interfaces
• Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
• Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
• Token Ring and serial interfaces

6. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

7. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

8. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

9. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

10. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

11. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

12. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
• application
• session
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

13. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
• Logical Link Control
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

14. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?
• The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
• The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
• The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
• The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.


15. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.

16. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

17. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

18. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
• hub
• modem
• repeater
• NIC
• Layer 2 switch


19. Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
• autonegotiation
• FastEthernet
• peer-to-peer shared resources
• administratively configured full duplex

20. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber