1. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C
2. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 156
• 158
• 160
• 162
• 164
• 166
3. Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
• file size
• data format
• network in use
• type of medium
• bandwidth of the link
4. Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
• 52.2 seconds
• 21.3 seconds
• 6.4 seconds
• 2 seconds
• 0.075 seconds
• 0.0375 seconds
5. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• handles representation, encoding and dialog control
• uses TCP and UDP protocols
• packet switching
• reliability, flow control and error correction
6. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)
• neutral and neutral
• neutral and positive
• neutral and negative
• positive and positive
• positive and negative
• negative and negative
7. Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)
• glass fibers
• copper
• gold
• plastic
• silicon
• silver
8. During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
• bit speed
• attenuation
• wire map
• saturation limit
• analog bandwidth
9. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)
• between workstation and backbone switch
• between individual workstations
• between backbone switches
• between enterprise server and switch
• on aggregate access links
10. What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?
• a transducer
• a transmitter
• a transceiver
• a transponder
• a port replicator
11. An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
12. Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)
• frame format
• media
• connectors
• timing
• multi-part encoding
13. Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?
• the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
• the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
• the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
• the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously
14. For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
• inter-building connection
• mid-length voice
• video conferencing
• vertical wiring
• horizontal wiring
• diagonal wiring
15. John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John's inexperience?
• collision domain extended
• an increased number of collision domains
• increased network performance
• increased bandwidth
• extended bandwidth
16. "CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
• MAC request
• ARP request
• ping
• Telnet
• proxy ARP
17. Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?
• encapsulation
• latency
• segmentation
• layered model
• broadcast domain
• extended
18. The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
• anonymous FTP servers
• telnet sessions
• video over IP applications
• NAS services
• ARP requests
• RIP updates
19. Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• resolve routing loops
• eliminate Split Horizon errors
• limit collisions
• resolve switching loops
20. Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Proxy RARP
21. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?
• session
• transport
• network
• data link
22. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
• session
23. Which of the following are Cisco proprietary routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• RIPv2
• IGRP
• OSPF
• BGP
• RIPv1
• EIGRP
24. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
25. A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
26. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
• 1022
• 510
• 254
• 126
• 30
• 6
27. If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
• NFS
• ASCII
• TFTP
• IMAP
• FTP
• UDP
28. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)
• a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
• a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
• a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
• a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
• a control connection between the client and server
29. Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)
• TFTP
• SNMP
• POP3
• SMTP
• IMAP4
• postoffice
30. What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
• a fault
• a short
• an open
• a split
• a good map
31. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 6
32. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable
33. What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
• The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
• The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
• Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
• The maximum frame length is 10 octets.
34. How is a MAC address represented?
• four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
• four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
• six hexadecimal digits
• twelve hexadecimal digits
• twenty-four Base10 digits
35. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule
36. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11c
• 802.11d
37. Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
• File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
• Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
• Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
• Internet Protocol (IP)
• User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
• Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)
38. Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)
• configuring the e-mail client
• installing NIC drivers
• configuring IP network settings
• connecting the network cable
• using FTP to download application software updates
39. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet
40. Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
• It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
• It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
• It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
• It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.
41. In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
• coaxial
• screened twisted pair
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair
• fiber optic
42. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?
• 25
• 15
• 10
• 5
• 2
43. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters
44. Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
• government
• education
• network
• non-profit
45. Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
• DNS
• WINS
• DHCP
• Telnet
46. Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
• www
• http://
• /teacher
• awsb.ca
47. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
• ping 10.10.10.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ping 127.0.0.1
• ping 223.223.223.223
• ping 255.255.255.255
48. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?
• bit
• frame
• packet
• segment
49. Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)
• transistor
• microprocessor
• power supply
• capacitor
• light emitting diode
• hard disk
50. What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
• It links data to the transport layer.
• It encapsulates frames into packets.
• It provides a service to the network layer.
• It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
• Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.
51. Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.39.1
• 111.9.28.30
• 123.1.2.132
• 128.50.38.2
• 105.1.34.1
• 0.23.92.3
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