CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 8 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose two.)
• specifying source addresses for authentication
• specifying internal hosts for NAT
• identifying traffic for QoS
• reorganizing traffic into VLANs
• filtering VTP packets

2. Which three statements are true concerning standard and extended ACLs? (Choose three.)
• Extended ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are filtered at the destination.
• Standard ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are filtered at the destination.
• Extended ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the destination if other traffic is to flow.
• Standard ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the destination if other traffic is to flow.
• Extended ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packets to pass through the network if placed near the source.
• Standard ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packets to pass through the network if placed near the source.

3. Which wildcard mask would match the host range for the subnet 192.16.5.32 /27?
• 0.0.0.32
• 0.0.0.63
• 0.0.63.255
• 0.0.0.31

4. A security administrator wants to secure password exchanges on the vty lines on all routers in the enterprise. What option should be implemented to ensure that passwords are not sent in clear text across the public network?
• Use Telnet with an authentication server to ensure effective authentication.
• Apply an access list on the router interfaces to allow only authorized computers.
• Apply an access list on the vty line to allow only authorized computers.
• Use only Secure Shell (SSH) on the vty lines.

5. Why are inbound ACLs more efficient for the router than outbound ACLs?
• Inbound ACLs deny packets before routing lookups are required.
• Inbound ACL operation requires less network bandwidth than outbound.
• Inbound ACLs permit or deny packets to LANs, which are typically more efficient than WANs.
• Inbound ACLs are applied to Ethernet interfaces, while outbound ACLs are applied to slower serial interfaces.

6. What can an administrator do to ensure that ICMP DoS attacks from the outside are mitigated as much as possible, without hampering connectivity tests initiated from the inside out?
• Create an access list permitting only echo reply and destination unreachable packets from the outside.
• Create an access list denying all ICMP traffic coming from the outside.
• Permit ICMP traffic from only known external sources.
• Create an access list with the established keyword at the end of the line.


7. Refer to the exhibit. The new security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from the Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is allowed to the Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1 on the Marketing router to implement the new security policy?
• access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
• access-list 165 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip any any
• access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 137 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
• access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 89 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www


8. Refer to the exhibit. Company policy for the network that is shown indicates the following guidelines:
1) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network, except host 192.168.3.77, should be able to reach the 192.168.2.0/24 network.
2) All hosts on the 192.168.3.0/24 network should be able to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
3) All other traffic originating from the 192.168.3.0 network should be denied.
Which set of ACL statements meets the stated requirements when they are applied to the Fa0/0 interface of router R2 in the inbound direction?
• access-list 101 deny ip any any
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
• access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
• access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
• access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255


9. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
• The new commands overwrite the current Managers ACL.
• The new commands are added to the end of the current Managers ACL.
• The new commands are added to the beginning of the current Managers ACL.
• An error appears stating that the ACL already exists.

10. What effect does the command reload in 30 have when entered into a router?
• If a router process freezes, the router reloads automatically.
• If a packet from a denied source attempts to enter an interface where an ACL is applied, the router reloads in 30 minutes.
• If a remote connection lasts for longer than 30 minutes, the router forces the remote user off.
• A router automatically reloads in 30 minutes.

11. Which two host addresses are included in the range specified by 172.16.31.64 0.0.0.31? (Choose two.)
• 172.16.31.64
• 172.16.31.77
• 172.16.31.78
• 172.16.31.95
• 172.16.31.96


12. Refer to the exhibit. The following commands were entered on RTB.
RTB(config)# access-list 4 deny 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.15
RTB(config)# access-list 4 permit any
RTB(config)# interface serial 0/0/0
RTB(config-if)# ip access-group 4 in
Which addresses do these commands block access to RTB?
• 192.168.20.17 to 192.168.20.31
• 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.31
• 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.32
• 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.33


13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure an access list that will allow the management host with an IP address of 192.168.10.25/24 to be the only host to remotely access and configure router RTA. All vty and enable passwords are configured on the router. Which group of commands will accomplish this task?
• Router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp any 192.168.10.25 0.0.0.0 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip any any
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
Router(config-if)# int fa0/0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.25 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 10 deny any
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)#access-group 10 in
• Router(config)# access-list 86 permit host 192.168.10.25
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# access-class 86 in
• Router(config)# access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.10.25 any eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 125 deny ip any any
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 125 i

14. ACL logging generates what type of syslog message?
• unstable network
• warning
• informational
• critical situation


15. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator notes a significant increase in the amount of traffic entering the network from the ISP. The administrator clears the access-list counters. After a few minutes, the administrator again checks the access-list table. What can be concluded from the most recent output shown?
• A small amount of HTTP trafic is an indication that the web server was not configured correctly.
• A larger amount of POP3 traffic (compared with SMTP traffic) indicates that there are more POP3 email clients than SMTP clients in the enterprise.
• A large amount of ICMP traffic is being denied at the interface, which can be an indication of a DoS attack.
• A larger amount of email traffic (compared with web traffic) is an indication that attackers mainly targeted the email server.


16. Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should be able to access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?
• access-list 42 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 42 permit any
• access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 56 permit any
• access-list 61 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.0
access-list 61 permit any
• access-list 87 deny ip any 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 87 permit ip any

17. Which ACL permits host 10.220.158.10 access to the web server 192.168.3.244?
• access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.220.158.10 eq 80 host 192.168.3.224
• access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80
• access-list 101 permit host 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 0.0.0.0 eq 80
• access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 eq 80


18. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of a company needs to configure the router RTA to allow its business partner (Partner A) to access the web server located in the internal network. The web server is assigned a private IP address, and a static NAT is configured on the router for its public IP address. Finally, the administrator adds the ACL. However, Partner A is denied access to the web server. What is the cause of the problem?
• Port 80 should be specified in the ACL.
• The public IP address of the server, 209.165.201.5, should be specified as the destination.
• The ACL should be applied on the s0/0 outbound interface.
• The source address should be specified as 198.133.219.0 255.255.255.0 in the ACL.

19. Traffic from the 64.104.48.0 to 64.104.63.255 range must be denied access to the network. What wildcard mask would the network administrator configure in the access list to cover this range?
• 0.0.15.255
• 0.0.47.255
• 0.0.63.255
• 255.255.240.0


20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add the command deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log to R3. After adding the command, the administrator verifies the change using the show access-list command. What sequence number does the new entry have?
• 10, and all other items are shifted down to the next sequence number
• 50
• 60

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. Permanent virtual circuits and switched virtual circuits are both part of which option for WAN connectivity?
• leased line
• cell switching
• packet switching
• circuit switching

2. Which best describes data communications equipment (DCE)?
• serves as data source and/or destination
• responsible for negotiating windowing and acknowledgements
• physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers
• equipment that forwards data and is responsible for the clocking signal

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
• an address identifying a virtual circuit
• a logical address identifying the DCE device
• an address identifying a Layer 3 service across a Frame Relay network
• a logical address identifying the physical interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch

4. When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
• leased line
• point-to-point
• circuit switched
• packet switched

5. What does a Frame Relay switch use to inform the sender that there is congestion?
• FECN
• BECN
• DE
• FCS

6. Which three statements describe functions of the Point-to-Point Protocol with regards to the OSI model?(Choose three.)
• operates at all layers of the OSI model
• provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols
• can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces
• uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices
• uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression
• uses network control protocols to test and maintain connectivity between devices

7. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)
• compression
• authentication
• dynamic flow control
• network layer address for IP
• connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods


8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring R1 to connect to R2, which is a non-Cisco router. Which encapsulation method will need to be configured for communication to occur?
• HDLC
• HSSI
• ISDN
• IPCP
• PPP

9. What two services allow the router to dynamically map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• ARP
• ICMP
• Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages


10. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the debug output?
• R2 is using PAP instead of CHAP.
• The routers have different CHAP passwords configured.
• The administrator performed a shutdown on the R2 PPP interface during negotiation.
• The Layer 3 protocol negotiation caused the connection failure.

11. Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP?
• to establish and terminate data links
• to provide authentication capabilities to PPP
• to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link
• to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link

12. Which two statements describe the function of time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)
• Multiple data streams share one common channel.
• Conversations that require extra bandwidth receive any unused time slices.
• Time slots are utilized on a first-come, first-served basis.
• Time slots go unused if a sender has nothing to transmit.
• Priority can be dedicated to one data source.

13. A company is implementing dialup services for remote workers to connect to the local network. The company uses multiple Layer 3 protocols and requires authentication for security. Which protocol should be used for this remote access?
• LMI
• PPP
• HDLC
• Frame Relay

14. What is the data transmission rate for the DS0 standard?
• 44 kb/s
• 64 kb/s
• 1.544 Mb/s
• 44.736 Mb/s

15. At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
• demilitarized zone (DMZ)
• demarcation point
• local loop
• cloud

16. Why are Frame Relay paths referred to as virtual?
• Frame Relay PVCs are created and discarded on demand.
• The connections between PVC endpoints act like dialup circuits.
• There are no dedicated circuits to and from the Frame Relay carrier.
• The physical circuits inside the Frame Relay cloud do not contain exclusive links for a specific Frame Relay connection.


17. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the exhibited output?
• LCP is in the process of negotiating a link.
• LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication to complete.
• LCP negotiation has completed successfully, but NCP negotiation is in progress.
• LCP and NCP negotiation is complete, and the data link service is available to carry packets.

18. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)
• It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.
• It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP.
• It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link-establishment parameters.
• It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.
• It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.
• It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.

19. What occurs in the encapsulation process as a data packet moves from a LAN across a WAN?
• The Layer 2 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN technology.
• The Layer 3 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN technology.
• Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation change to a technology that is appropriate for the WAN.
• Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation remain constant as the data packet travels throughout the network.


20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has a connectivity problem between the serial interfaces of Merida and Vargas. What is the cause of the problem?
• Authentication is required on the serial link.
• The encapsulation is misconfigured.
• The IP addresses are on different subnets.
• The serial interface on Vargas is shutdown.
• The loopback interfaces on both routers are not configured.

21. What statement best describes cell switching?
• It uses a dedicated path between endpoints.
• It creates a permanent physical link between two points.
• It uses DLCIs to identify virtual circuits.
• It creates fixed-length packets that traverse virtual circuits.

22. In which two layers of the OSI model are key differences found between a LAN and a WAN. (Choose two.)
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 6
• Layer 7

23. Which statement is true about the Cisco implementation of the HDLC protocol?
• It supports authentication.
• It has a universally compatible frame format.
• It is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers.
• It does not support multiple protocols across a single link.

24. Which field of a frame uses error detection mechanisms to verify that the frame is not damaged intransit?
• FCS
• MTU
• flag
• control
• protocol

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 6 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, and C are part of the existing OSPF network. Router D has been added to the network. All routers are running OSPF and have the indicated priorities applied to the interface. What is the DR/BDR status immediately after router D is added to the existing network?
• An election is forced and router D wins the DR election.
• The DR and BDR do not change until the next election.
• An election is forced and the existing BDR becomes the DR.
• The router with the highest router ID becomes the new BDR.

2. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
• Elections are always optional.
• Elections are required in all WAN networks.
• Elections are required in point-to-point networks.
• Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
• Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.


3. Refer to the exhibit. As part of an OSPF network, R1 and R2 are trying to become adjacent neighbors. Although it appears that the two systems are communicating, neither of the routing tables include OSPF routes received from its neighbor. What could be responsible for this situation?
• R1 and R2 are not on the same subnet.
• The Process IDs on each router do not match.
• The timer intervals on the routers do not match.
• The value set for the Transmit Delay time on both routers is too low.

4. What is the primary difference between link-state protocols and distance vector protocols with regard to route calculation?
• Distance vector protocols take existing routes from their neighbors and add to them. Link-state protocols independently calculate full routes.
• Link-state protocols calculate and pass full routing tables to all routers in their associated areas, and distance vector protocols do not.
• When determining invalid routes, link-state protocols use split horizon for all route computations. Distance vector protocols use reverse poisoning.
• Distance vector protocols require more CPU and RAM for route calculations than link-state protocols require.

5. What is always required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
• designated routers
• a backup designated router
• neighbor adjacencies
• an NBMA network topology
• links that are configured on the 224.0.0.0 network

6. If a network has converged, what is true about the link-state database held by each router in the same OSPF area?
• Each router has a link-state database containing the same status information.
• Each router has a different link-state database depending on its position within the network.
• The link-state database is stored in a designated router and is accessed by each router in the area as needed.
• The link-state database in each router only contains information about adjacent routers and the status of their links.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which commands configure router A for OSPF?
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0


8. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands added on router B?
• allows router A to form an adjacency with router B
• provides a stable OSPF router ID on router B
• provides a method of testing router traffic
• creates the OSPF adjacency table on router B

9. Which two features are associated with Frame Relay OSPF point-to-multipoint environments? (Choose two.)
• A DR is not elected.
• The OSPF priority value determines the active DR on the Frame Relay link.
• OSPF neighbor routers are statically defined.
• The link types are identified as broadcast multiaccess.
• The BDR will have a router ID whose value is greater than the DR router ID.

10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
• Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the initial LSA flooding, routers generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
• A link-state routing protocol requires less router processor power.

11. What range of networks are advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0?
• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24
• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24
• 192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
• 192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24


12. Refer to the exhibit. Which network statement configures the home router to allow all the interfaces to participate in OSPF?
• network 10.0.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
• network 10.8.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• network 10.8.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
• network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• network 10.12.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0


13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the value 128 shown in bold?
• It is the OSPF cost metric.
• It is the OSPF administrative distance.
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the distance in hops to the network.
• It is the value assigned to an interface that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the metric.


14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented OSPF and the network has converged. If all router interfaces are enabled and functional, what route will OSPF view as lowest cost when moving frames from Host3 to Host1?
• R3 to R4 to R1
• R3 to R1
• R3 to R2 to R1
• R3 to R5 to R2 to R1


15. Refer to the exhibit. When establishing adjacency relationships, which IP address would router A use to send hello packets to router B?
• 10.11.0.1
• 10.11.0.2
• 10.11.0.255
• 224.0.0.5
• 255.255.255.255

16. Which two statements describe the operation of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• All routers in the same area have identical link-state databases when converged.
• Routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
• Link-state routers send frequent periodic updates of the entire routing table.
• Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to deliver and receive LSAs.
• Calculating the shortest path for each destination is accomplished with the SPF algorithm.


17. Refer to the exhibit. Which router will be elected the DR and which will become the BDR?
• R1 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.
• R1 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.
• R2 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.
• R2 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.
• R3 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.
• R3 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.


18. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 10.16.1.64 255.255.255.252 s0/0/0 is entered into the router. Why does network 10.16.1.64/30 appear in the routing table in addition to network 10.16.1.64/27?
• The router views 10.16.1.64/30 and 10.16.1.64/27 as two different networks.
• The static route is used as a backup route for packets destined for 10.16.1.64/27.
• The AD for static routes is lower than the AD for OSPF routes.
• The static route metric is lower than the OSPF metric for the 10.16.1.64/27 network.


19. Refer to the exhibit. How was the OSPF default gateway entry for R2 determined?
• Default routes are automatically injected by OSPF into all advertisements.
• A static default gateway route is defined in the configuration of R2.
• The default-information originate command is applied on R1.
• The ISP defines the gateway of last resort and automatically passes it to R1 and R2.
• The ip default-gateway command is applied on R2.


20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator would like only the 172.16.32.0 network advertised to Router1. Which OSPF network command accomplishes this?
• Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.15 area 0
• Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

21. Which statement is true regarding OSPF DR and BDR elections?
• A new DR/BDR election occurs each time a new OSPF neighbor is added.
• The router with the highest OSPF priority setting wins the election for DR.
• The default priority value for a router connected to a multi-access network is 0.
• The router with the highest MAC address is elected as the DR when the default priority values are used.

22. When compared to a distance vector routing protocol, what is a benefit of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks?
• simpler configuration
• reduction of router processing requirements
• isolation of network instability
• less complex network planning


23. Refer to the exhibit. What statement describes the DR/BDR relationship of the HQ router?
• HQ is the DR.
• HQ is the BDR.
• HQ is a DROTHER.
• HQ is a member of an NBMA network.


24. Refer to the exhibit. RTRC was recently configured and is not sending the proper OSPF routes to RTRB, as shown in the RTRB routing table. Based on the RTRC configuration, what is most likely the problem?
• RTRC interfaces are administratively shut down.
• The OSPF process ID for RTRC does not match the process ID used on RTRB.
• The interface addresses on RTRC overlap with other addresses in the network.
• The OSPF routing configuration on RTRC has a missing or incorrect network statement.

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 4 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
• Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
• A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
• Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.

2. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

3. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
• 64
• 96
• 128
• 192
• 256
• 512

4. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
• improved security
• improved router performance
• decreased processor load
• improved scalability
• universal application compatibility
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts


5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

6. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 128
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 512
• 1024


7. refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

8. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255

9. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
• 11100111
• 11100101
• 11101110

10. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
• Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
• Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

11. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
• 255 and below
• 1024 and below
• 1025 and above
• 64,000 and above

12. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

13. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62

14. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

15. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

16. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
• 2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
• 2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

17. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

18. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to preserve registered public IP addresses
• to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
• to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
• to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
• to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers

19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
• inside global
• outside local
• outside global
• private IP address

20. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

CCNA Discovery 1 - Module Final 2 Exam Version 4.0 Networking for Home and Small Businesses

1. Refer to the graphic. What feature can be installed on the Linksys integrated router to convert private IP addresses to Internet-routable addresses?
• authentication
• DHCP
• encryption
• firewall
• NAT
• WEP

2. Select three statements that correctly describe how DHCP services may be provided. (Choose three.)
• An integrated router provides IP configurations for most ISPs.
• An integrated router can act as both DHCP server and DHCP client.
• A home PC using a static IP address obtained that address from a DHCP server.
• Most home network integrated routers receive an IP configuration directly from their ISP.
• A variety of devices can act as DHCP servers, as long as they run DHCP service software.
• A home PC is required by standards to obtain an IP address and default gateway from a DHCP server (usually the ISP).

3. Which of the following statements best describes DNS?
• DNS servers are used to map an IP address to a physical address.
• DNS servers are used to map a name to an IP address.
• DNS servers are used to configure logical address information for host computers.
• DNS servers are used to translate from private addresses to public addresses.

4. When are leased lines typically used?
• when low bandwidth is required
• for home and small business connectivity
• when a dedicated digital data line is necessary
• as a less expensive option to cable and DSL modem service


5. Refer to the graphic. Assume that the command output is from a wireless DHCP client that is connected to a Linksys integrated router. What can be deduced from the output?
• The wireless connection is good.
• The WEP key or SSID needs to be checked.
• The DHCP configuration on the router needs to be checked.
• The wireless NIC driver or the NIC itself needs to be reinstalled.

6. Choose the option that shows the correct sequence of steps in the encapsulation of TCP/IP data that is passed from a source to a destination host?
A. converts data to bits for transmission
B. packages the data for end to end transport
C. adds the data-link header and trailer
D. adds the network IP address to the header of the frame
• A,B,C,D
• A,C,D,B
• B,D,C,A
• B,C,D,A
• D,C,B,A

7. What are two advantages of purchasing a custom-built computer? (Choose two.)
• usually a lower cost
• no waiting period for assembly
• user can specify higher performance components
• supports higher-end graphics and gaming applications
• fewer components to replace

8. What is an ISP?
• It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
• It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
• It is an organization that allows individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.
• It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

9. A wireless DHCP client cannot connect to the Internet through a Linksys integrated router. When you type ipconfig on the host, no IP address, subnet mask, or default gateway shows. What are two of the first things you will check? (Choose two.)
• SSID
• if the wireless client is configured for DHCP
• the cable between client and integrated router
• the firewall configuration on the integrated router
• if the correct default gateway is configured on the client
• if the correct default gateway is configured on the integrated router

10. Identify two causes of physical layer network problems. (Choose two.)
• logical addressing issues
• improperly terminated cables
• cables plugged into wrong ports
• incorrect MAC address assigned
• packets received out of sequence
• incorrect subnet mask on an interface

11. Which wireless protocol is used for encryption?
• EAP
• Open
• PSK
• WEP


12. Refer to the graphic. Assume that the exhibited output is from a host that is connected to a Linksys integrated router. What is one of the first things you should check?
• IP address on the host
• IP address on the router
• subnet mask on the host
• default gateway on the host
• link status LED on the front of the router

13. What is a service pack?
• an access policy
• an agreement between a company and a vendor
• a piece of code created to fix one specific problem
• a collection of patches and updates released by a vendor
• a small piece of software designed specifically for security issues

14. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device


15. Refer to the graphic. Based on the information that is shown, what statement is true?
• This configuration would be commonly found in an ad hoc wireless network.
• Any wireless client that is attached to this access point would have the same IP address and SSID.
• All wireless devices that are connected to this access point must have an assigned SSID of Academy.
• In addition to accepting wireless client requests, this access point must connect to the wired network.

16. Which of the following are transport layer protocols of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
• FTP
• UDP
• SMTP
• TFTP
• TCP

17. How does a crossover cable make it possible for two "like devices" (for example, two switches) to communicate?
• The transmit pins are disconnected and only the receive pins are used.
• The transmit pins on one device are connected to the transmit pins on the other device.
• The receive pins on one device are connected to the receive pins on the other device.
• The transmit pins on one device are connected to the receive pins on the other device.

18. What layer is the first point of entry for a host into the network?
• core layer
• access layer
• network layer
• distribution layer

19. What information within a data packet does a router use, by default, to make forwarding decisions?
• the destination MAC address
• the destination IP address
• the destination host name
• the destination service requested

20. What is the name for the contract between a customer and an ISP that specifies requirements for uptime and service response time?
• DSL
• IAB
• NAP
• SLA


21. Refer to the graphic. Based on the configuration information that is shown, which three types of 802.11 networks are allowed access to the WLAN? (Choose three.)
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11e
• 802.11g
• 802.11n
• 802.11x

22. Which installation option should be chosen when the current operating system is too damaged to work properly?
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• clean install
• virtualization

23. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
• 200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
• 150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
• 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
• 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
• 127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

24. What is specified by the network number in an IP address?
• the network to which the host belongs
• the physical identity of the computer on the network
• the node of the subnetwork which is being addressed
• the broadcast identity of subnetwork

25. A computer joins the network and announces itself to all hosts on the LAN. What type of message does the computer send out?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast

26. What two commands can be used to form a new binding if client information does not agree with the DHCP client table? (Choose two.)
• ipconfig /release
• ipconfig /all
• ipconfig /flushdns
• ipconfig /renew
• ipconfig

27. When acting as a DHCP server, an integrated router can provide what three types of information to a client? (Choose three.)
• physical address
• MAC address
• default gateway
• static IP address
• dynamic IP address
• DNS server address

28. What is an accurate description of network devices in the distribution layer?
• They are designed to interconnect individual hosts.
• They are designed to interconnect multiple companies.
• They are designed to interconnect local network segments.
• They are designed to switch data packets as fast as possible.

29. A network host is accessing a web server. What two protocols are most likely being used as the TCP/IP model application layer protocol and the internetwork layer protocol? (Choose two.)
• IP
• FTP
• TCP
• DHCP
• HTTP

30. For the second time in a week, workstations on a LAN are not able to log into the server. The technician fixed the problem the first time, but cannot remember the steps taken to solve it. What aspect of the troubleshooting process has the technician neglected?
• identifying the problem
• asking end-users questions
• documenting the troubleshooting process
• using structured techniques to solve a problem

31. Which three statements are true about local and network applications? (Choose three.)
• A local application is loaded in a local computer and can be accessed by a remote computer on the network.
• A network application is loaded in a local computer and accessed from a remote computer.
• A local application is loaded in a local computer and accessed only by the local computer.
• A network application is loaded in a local computer and accessed only by the local computer.
• An example of a local application is e-mail.
• An example of a network application is instant messaging.

32. Which statement is true concerning stateful packet inspection?
• Access is permitted based on IP addresses of the source and destination devices.
• Access is permitted based on the MAC addresses of the source and destination devices.
• Access is permitted only if the type of application that is attempting to reach the internal host is allowed.
• Access is permitted only if it is a legitimate response to a request from an internal host.

33. What action will a router take when it receives a frame with a broadcast MAC address?
• It will not forward the frame to another network.
• It forwards the frame back to the sending host with its IP address as a response.
• It forwards the frame out of all interfaces except the interface where the frame was received.
• It forwards the frame back out the receiving interface to insure all hosts on the local network receive it.

34. What is the default subnet mask for a class B address?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

35. Which protocol is used to transfer files among network devices and perform file-management functions?
• DNS
• FTP
• HTML
• HTTP


36. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of assigning a Network Name of Academy?
• It identifies the wireless LAN.
• It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.
• It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
• It allows access to the AP configuration GUI by name rather than address.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

37. Select the connection that would require a straight-through cable.
• a switch to a hub
• a router to a switch
• a switch to a switch
• a router to a router

38. What type of computer would most likely use a docking station?
• laptop
• server
• desktop
• mainframe
• workstation


39. Refer to the graphic. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?
• It identifies the wireless LAN.
• It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.
• It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.
• It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
• It ensures that only authorized users are allowed access to the WLAN.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

40. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel

41. What are two examples of storage peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
• printer
• flash drive
• headphones
• external DVD
• barcode reader

42. A host sent a message that all other hosts on the local network received and processed. What type of domain are all these hosts a part of?
• local domain
• multicast domain
• collision domain
• broadcast domain

43. What are the two possible values for a digital bit? (Choose two.)
• 1
• A
• F
• #
• 9

44. The area covered by a single AP is known as what?
• ad-hoc network
• basic service set
• independent basic service set
• extended service set
• distribution system

45. Within a local network, which two items must be unique on a computer for it to successfully connect to the network? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• subnet mask
• computer name
• default gateway address
• operating system version

46. Where do ISPs get the public addresses that they assign to end users?
• ISPs create the addresses themselves.
• ISPs are assigned addresses through the RFC.
• ISPs obtain their addresses automatically.
• ISPs obtain address blocks from registry organizations.

47. Your school network blocks all websites related to online gaming. What type of security policy is being applied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling

48. What measurement is commonly used to describe communication speed when transferring data?
• bps
• cps
• Hz
• MB

49. Which two statements correctly describe Media Access Control (MAC) addresses? (Choose two.)
• MAC addresses are used to identify a specific NIC.
• MAC addresses are physical addresses.
• MAC addresses contain a network number and unique host identification.
• MAC addresses are always assigned to network devices by a network administrator.
• MAC addresses can be dynamically assigned.

50. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is commonly used to exchange data between a PDA and a computer?
• FM
• radar
• infrared
• ultraviolet

51. When considering the purchase of a new operating system, what is meant by "Total Cost of Ownership?"
• applications and support costs
• hardware and support costs
• hardware and software costs
• hardware, software, and support costs
• hardware, operating system, and applications costs

52. When terminating UTP cabling, why is it important to untwist only a small amount of each wire pair?
• minimizes crosstalk
• makes installation faster
• ensures wires are in correct order
• makes it easier to fit wires into connector