1.
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
2.
Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level ” 1 ” ultimate routes.
3.
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
ingress port buffering
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching
borderless switching
4.
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
5.
1
3
4
2
6.
When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?
data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID
7.
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
No additional configuration is necessary.
ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
8.
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
9.
A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
10
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
The ipv6 route command was used.
the ip route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
11
Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)
(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown
(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# ip routing
12.
A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
13
the correct answer of question 13 is
1- Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.
2- Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.
3- Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
4- Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
5- Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best
14.
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
computer type
source TCP hello address
ICMP message type
destination UDP port number
destination MAC address
15
Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.
16.
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?
the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface
the lowest MAC address on an active interface
17.
Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict
switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect
18.
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
speed of convergence
scalability
ISP selection
the autonomous system that is used
campus backbone architecture
19
ultimate route
child route
default route
level 1 parent route
20.
What caused the following error message to appear?
01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
21.
Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.
22.
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
permit ip any host ip_address
permit icmp any any nd-na
permit ip any any
deny ip any any
23
24.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
Cost equals bandwidth.
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
25
Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)
outbound
R2 S0/0/1
R1 S0/0/0
inbound
R1 Gi0/1.12
R2 Gi0/1.20
26.
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
Switch(config)# no vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
27.
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
28.
What is a function of the distribution layer?
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
network access to the user
fault isolation
high-speed backbone connectivity
29.
A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?
static NAT
dynamic NAT
port address translation
DHCP
30.
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
The link interface subnet masks must match.
The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
31.
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
the cost of that link
the type of network link
the link bandwidth
the link next-hop IP address
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
32.
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
There is no end-to-end addressing.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?
There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.
34
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
35.
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.
36.
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
37.
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
The path a static route uses to send data is known.
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
Configuration of static routes is error-free.
Static routes scale well as the network grows.
38.
When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration
39.
Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the destination MAC address and the incoming port
40
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
41.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?
The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.
42
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
43.
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
A cable has not been attached to the port.
An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
44.
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
access list number between 100 and 199
source subnet mask and wildcard mask
default gateway address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask
destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 1 and 99
destination address and wildcard mask
45.
A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
0.0.0.127
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255
0.0.255.255
A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
46.
Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
47.
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
They request more information about their databases.
They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs
48.
What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
49.
What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced
50.
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
ip helper-address
ip address dhcp
ip dhcp pool
service dhcp
51.
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols
52.
A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
53
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?
5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
54.
Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
show processes
show cdp neighbor
show access-lists
show ip route
show running-config
55.
Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
IPsec
DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
56.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which keyword is displayed on the web browser?
NAT works!
Goodjob!
Welldone!
NAT configured!
57
Refer to the exhibit.
What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/21
58
Fill in the blank.
Static routes are configured by the use of the ” ip route” global configuration command.
Take Assessment
CCNA 2 Final Exam Answers
