CCNA Exploration 1 - Module Final Exam Version 4.0 Network Fundamentals

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module Final Exam Version 4.0 Network Fundamentals


1. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
• IP address incorrectly entered
• network cables unplugged
• subnet mask incorrectly entered
• network card failure

2. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
• two networks routing the packets
• two applications communicating the data
• two hosts at either end of the communication
• two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

3. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
• service port number
• host logical address
• device physical address
• virtual connection identifier

4. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
• console
• enable
• enable secret
• VTY

5. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128


6. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
• IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
• IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
• IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
• IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
• IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
• IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18


7. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?
• Athens
• Ankara
• London
• Paris
• PC4

8. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
• Flash
• NVRAM
• RAM
• ROM


9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP
and MAC addresses in this communication?
• Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
• Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
• Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94


10. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
• segment1
• segment2
• segment3
• segment4
• segment5


11. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

12. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
• vty
• aux
• console
• enable secret
• enable password


13. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
• The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
• The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

14. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
• 0 to 255
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 49151
• 49152 to 65535


15. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
• address translation
• DHCP services
• ftpd
• web server


16. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
• Connection 1 – rollover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
• Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
• Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable
• Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – straight-through cable
• Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable


17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
• leaving host A
• leaving ATL
• leaving Dallas
• leaving NYC

18. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
• when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
• when the interface timers have been cleared
• when the connected DTE device is shut down
• when the interface is functioning as a DCE device


19. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The data is flowing from server to client.
• The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
• The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.


20. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?
• an FTP client
• a Telnet client
• a terminal emulation program
• a web browser

21. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
• Switch-6J>
• Switch-6J#
• Switch-6J(config)#
• Switch-6J(config-if)#
• Switch-6J(config-line)#


22. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
• The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
• The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network
• The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /27.
• The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

23. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
• 172.16.4.63 /26
• 172.16.4.129 /26
• 172.16.4.191 /26
• 172.16.4.51 /27
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.221 /27


24. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?
• The data is automatically encrypted.
• A Telnet server process is running on PC1.
• The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.
• A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

25. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

26. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport


27. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
• only computer D
• only computer A and computer D
• only computer B, computer C, and computer D
• all computers

28. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
• TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
• UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
• TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
• TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

29. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?
• IP
• UDP
• Ethernet
• a connectionless acknowledgement
• an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service


30. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two)
• A single broadcast domain is present
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• Three broadcast domains are shown.
• Four networks are needed.
• Five collision domains exist.


31. Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
• IP address of the host
• default gateway of the host
• IP address of the homepage for the host
• primary domain name server for the host
• IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local


32. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
• 00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
• 198.133.219.25:80
• http://www.cisco.com
• C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

33. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
• 10 Base-T
• 10 Base-2
• 10 Base-5
• 100 Base-FX
• 100 Base TX
• 1000 Base LX


34. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
• A, B, D, G
• A, B, E, F
• C, D, G, I
• G, H, I, J


35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
• Host A was assigned a network address.
• Host B was assigned a multicast address.
• Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
• The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

36. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
• 200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
• 150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
• 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
• 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
• 127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

37. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
• physical addressing
• encoding
• routing
• cabling
• media access control


38. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
• issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
• issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
• issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
• issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1


39. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multiaccess
• mesh

40. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
• access point
• host
• hub
• router
• switch

41. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three)
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
• A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
• The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
• All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.


42. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)
• 192.168.18.38
• 192.168.18.48
• 192.168.18.49
• 192.168.18.52
• 192.168.18.59
• 192.168.18.63

43. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three)
• uses a flat structure
• prevent broadcasts
• heirarchical
• uniquely identifies each host
• 48 bits in length
• contains a network portion


44. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
• 127.0.0.1
• 192.168.64.196
• 192.168.254.1
• 192.168.254.9
• 192.168.254.254

45. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

46. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two)
Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login
• The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
• The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
• The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0?.
• Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
• Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0? as the password.


47. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two)
• This is a server response.
• The UDP protocol is being used.
• The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
• The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
• The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 1335.

48. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
• Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
• Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
• Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
• Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
• Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.


49. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 11 Exam Version 4.0 Network Fundamentals

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 11 Exam Version 4.0 Network Fundamentals


1. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
• enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
• enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
• enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0

2. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check

3. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
• show flash
• show NVRAM
• show startup-config
• show running-config
• show version

4. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana


5. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode


6. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.


7. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

8. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH

9. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration


10. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
• Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
• Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
• Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
• Issue a show ip interface brief command on router C.

11. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z


12. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

13. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
• RAM
• ROM
• Flash
• NVRAM

14. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
• AUX
• Ethernet
• Console
• Telnet
• SSH

15. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory


16. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1


17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login


18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
• Console


19. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch from hosts outside the local network?
• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 10 Exam Version 4.0 Network Fundamentals

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 10 Exam Version 4.0 Network Fundamentals

1. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber


2. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.


3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
• hub
• router
• firewall appliance
• wireless access point


4. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
• wireless access point
• router
• hub
• switch

5. What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)
• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

6. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable

7. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248


8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

9. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

10. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096

11. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0


12. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5


13. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
• connecting a PC to a router’s console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds


14. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7


15. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248


16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail

17. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated

18. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device


19. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54

20. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface

21. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater

22. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin
• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45

23. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Network Fundamentals

CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0 Network Fundamentals

1. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer


2. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?
• preamble and stop frame
• network layer packet
• physical addressing
• FCS and SoF

3. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications

4. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair

5. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol
• makes the connection with the upper layers
• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long

8. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution

9. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

10. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer

11. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

12. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time

13. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
• Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.
• Host A will send on to the media a broadcast frame that contains the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
• Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.
• Host A will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC that is the MAC address associated with 172.16.224.1.


14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

16. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

17. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access


18. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

19. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.


20. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.