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Showing posts with label Ccna 3 Final Exam Answers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Ccna 3 Final Exam Answers. Show all posts

Thursday, June 13, 2013

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise

1. Permanent virtual circuits and switched virtual circuits are both part of which option for WAN connectivity?
• leased line
• cell switching
packet switching
• circuit switching

2. Which best describes data communications equipment (DCE)?
• serves as data source and/or destination
• responsible for negotiating windowing and acknowledgements
• physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers
equipment that forwards data and is responsible for the clocking signal

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
an address identifying a virtual circuit
• a logical address identifying the DCE device
• an address identifying a Layer 3 service across a Frame Relay network
• a logical address identifying the physical interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch

4. When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
• leased line
• point-to-point
circuit switched
• packet switched

5. What does a Frame Relay switch use to inform the sender that there is congestion?
• FECN
BECN
• DE
• FCS

6. Which three statements describe functions of the Point-to-Point Protocol with regards to the OSI model?(Choose three.)
• operates at all layers of the OSI model
provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols
can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces
• uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices
uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression
• uses network control protocols to test and maintain connectivity between devices

7. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)
compression
authentication
• dynamic flow control
• network layer address for IP
• connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring R1 to connect to R2, which is a non-Cisco router. Which encapsulation method will need to be configured for communication to occur?
• HDLC
• HSSI
• ISDN
• IPCP
PPP

9. What two services allow the router to dynamically map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• ARP
• ICMP
• Proxy ARP
Inverse ARP
LMI status messages

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
10. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the debug output?
• R2 is using PAP instead of CHAP.
The routers have different CHAP passwords configured.
• The administrator performed a shutdown on the R2 PPP interface during negotiation.
• The Layer 3 protocol negotiation caused the connection failure.

11. Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP?
• to establish and terminate data links
• to provide authentication capabilities to PPP
• to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link
to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link

12. Which two statements describe the function of time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)
Multiple data streams share one common channel.
• Conversations that require extra bandwidth receive any unused time slices.
• Time slots are utilized on a first-come, first-served basis.
Time slots go unused if a sender has nothing to transmit.
• Priority can be dedicated to one data source.

13. A company is implementing dialup services for remote workers to connect to the local network. The company uses multiple Layer 3 protocols and requires authentication for security. Which protocol should be used for this remote access?
• LMI
PPP
• HDLC
• Frame Relay

14. What is the data transmission rate for the DS0 standard?
• 44 kb/s
64 kb/s
• 1.544 Mb/s
• 44.736 Mb/s

15. At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
• demilitarized zone (DMZ)
demarcation point
• local loop
• cloud

16. Why are Frame Relay paths referred to as virtual?
• Frame Relay PVCs are created and discarded on demand.
• The connections between PVC endpoints act like dialup circuits.
• There are no dedicated circuits to and from the Frame Relay carrier.
The physical circuits inside the Frame Relay cloud do not contain exclusive links for a specific Frame Relay connection.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
17. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the exhibited output?
• LCP is in the process of negotiating a link.
• LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication to complete.
• LCP negotiation has completed successfully, but NCP negotiation is in progress.
LCP and NCP negotiation is complete, and the data link service is available to carry packets.

18. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)
It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.
• It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP.
• It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link-establishment parameters.
It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.
It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.
• It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.

19. What occurs in the encapsulation process as a data packet moves from a LAN across a WAN?
The Layer 2 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN technology.
• The Layer 3 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN technology.
• Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation change to a technology that is appropriate for the WAN.
• Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation remain constant as the data packet travels throughout the network.

CCNA Discovery 3 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0 Introducing Routing and Switching in the Enterprise
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has a connectivity problem between the serial interfaces of Merida and Vargas. What is the cause of the problem?
• Authentication is required on the serial link.
The encapsulation is misconfigured.
• The IP addresses are on different subnets.
• The serial interface on Vargas is shutdown.
• The loopback interfaces on both routers are not configured.

21. What statement best describes cell switching?
• It uses a dedicated path between endpoints.
• It creates a permanent physical link between two points.
• It uses DLCIs to identify virtual circuits.
It creates fixed-length packets that traverse virtual circuits.

22. In which two layers of the OSI model are key differences found between a LAN and a WAN. (Choose two.)
Layer 1
Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 6
• Layer 7

23. Which statement is true about the Cisco implementation of the HDLC protocol?
• It supports authentication.
• It has a universally compatible frame format.
It is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers.
• It does not support multiple protocols across a single link.

24. Which field of a frame uses error detection mechanisms to verify that the frame is not damaged intransit?
FCS
• MTU
• flag
• control
• protocol

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 6 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP

1. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
• show ip route
• show ip rip
• debug ip rip
• show ip protocols
show ip rip database

2. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
• to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
• to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
• to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
• to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

3. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
• Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
• Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
• Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

4. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
• Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
• Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
• In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.

5. Consider this routing table entry R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1 What type of route is this?
• a static route
• a default route
a RIP route
• an OSPF route
• an EIGRP route
• a directly-connected route

6. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
• router# show ip address
• router# show ip route
router# show ip networks
• router# show ip interface brief
• router# debug ip protocol
• router# debug rip update

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

8. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
• AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
• Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
• ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

9. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
destination IP address
• destination MAC address

10. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
show ip rip database

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 6 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
11. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
• in 30 seconds
• in 60 seconds
• in 90 seconds
Immediately

12. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
Ping
• show arp
Traceroute
show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail

13. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v2

14. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
• metric
subnet mask
• area identification
• hop count
• autonomous system number

15. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?
• show version
• show ip route
• show interface
show ip protocols

16. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
border gateway router
• DSLAM
• web server
• interior router

17. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP

18. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
• They are created in interface configuration mode.
They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
• They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
• They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

19. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
• a home business with one ISP connection
a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
• a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
• a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

20. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
• Internet
• intranet
• virtual private network
autonomous system

21. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 6 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
• 14
• 15
16
• 17

23. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
• when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
• when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
• when more than one interior routing protocol is used
when the company uses two or more ISPs

CCNA Discovery 2 - Module 6 Exam Version 4.0 Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
• routerA(config-router)# no version 2
• routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
• routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
• routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway