CCNA 4 - Module Voucher Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

CCNA 4 - Module Voucher Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

1. When connecting two routers from different vendors using a dedicated point-to-point connection, which type of encapsulation should be used?
• Cisco
• HDLC
• IETF
• PPP

2. Which representations have the same meaning when representing the subnet mask?
• /10 and 255.224.0.0
• /15 and 255.255.0.0
• /21 and 255.255.248.0
• /24 and 255.255.0.0

3. Which layer of the OSI model provides negotiation of data transfer syntax?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

4. Which of the following describe the Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It prevents routing loops.
• It prevents broadcasts in a switched network.
• It operates at Layer 3.
• It uses BPDUs to select the shortest path in a switched network.
• It allows a router to load balance across redundant links.
• It prevents switching loops.

5. What is the command syntax used to create a subinterface?
• Router(config-if)# int s0.115 point-to-point
• Router(config-if)# int s0 subinterface 115 point-to-point
• Router(config-if)# subinterface 115 point-to-point
• Router(config-if)# subinterface s0.115 point-to-point

6. Network broacast traffic from the Business Department is needlessly reaching the Engineering Department LAN. What can be done to contain this traffic within the Business Department network while maintaining connectivity with enterprise servers and the Internet? (Choose two.)
• Establish a VTP domain to contain the extraneous traffic.
• Provide greater bandwidth to the Engineering Department LAN.
• Utilize full-duplex Ethernet on the Engineering Department LAN.
• Place the business department on a separate subnet and route between networks.
• Change the switch IP address to an address on the Engineering Department LAN.
• Create separate VLANs and subnets for the two departments and route between the two.

7. What is the purpose of the show cdp neighbors command?
• to display a summary of the configurations of all directly attached Cisco devices
• to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local device
• to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
• to display addressing information about all remote routers
• to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area

8. Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
• A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
• A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
• Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
• There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

9. Which device uses logical addresses to interconnect networks or subnetworks?
• hub
• layer 2 switch
• router
• bridge
• repeater

10. What are the advantages of OSPF in comparison with RIP v2? (Choose two.)
• OSPF provides support for Classless Interdomain Routing but RIP v2 does not.
• OSPF may result in faster convergence, due to triggered updates.
• OSPF's built-in features make it easy to design, implement, and troubleshoot.
• OSPF routers build a complete view of the network, reducing the potential for routing loops.
• OSPF sends periodic link state advertisements to keep the link active.
• OSPF routers have lower memory and processor requirements.

11. What is the length of a MAC address?
• 12 bits
• 24 bits
• 38 bits
• 48 bits

12. Which fields are common to the TCP and the UDP segments? (Choose two.)
• source address
• sequence number
• acknowledgement number
• options
• checksum
• destination port

13. Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source IP address
• source MAC address

14. Which of the following are commonly used routing metrics? (Choose three.)
• ARP
• hop count
• window size
• delay
• load
• media type

15. Which command will display the name of the Cisco IOS currently running on a router?
• show ip interfaces
• show ip route
• show cdp nei detail
• show version

16. Which router parameters can be set from global configuration mode? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• Telnet password
• hostname
• console password
• subnet mask
• enable secret password

17. What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
• SLIP
• PPP
• HDLC
• VPP

18. Which of the following are types of EIGRP packets? (Choose three.)
• hello
• respond
• DUAL
• query
• acknowledgement
• holddown

19. Which item best describes the ping command?
• It uses ICMP echo packets to verify connectivity at the TCP/IP internet layer
• It checks for connectivity at the TCP/IP application layer.
• It uses Time to Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router used along a path.
• It verifies sliding window settings at the TCP/IP transport layer.

20. Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
• bridge
• hub
• switch
• router

21. Which of the following authentication processes provides protection against playback attacks?
• CHAP
• DDI
• PAP
• TCP

22. What are the effects of LAN segmentation using a switch? (Choose three.)
• dedicated bandwidth between source and destinations
• enlarged collision domains
• decreased broadcast domains
• increased number of collision domains
• increased latency in the network

23. An ISDN BRI line can be described as which of the following?
• 2B + D
• 2D + B
• 23B + D
• 23D + B

24. For the purpose of forwarding packets, which protocol manages communication between routers regarding available routes ?
• DNS
• ICMP
• RIP
• ARP
• CDP
• STP


25. The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.


26. Which commands will configure the router ports with IP addresses as shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
• R1(config)# interface s0
R1(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.146 255.255.255.252
• R1(config)# interface e0
R1(config-if)# ip address 10.1.7.254 255.255.252.0
• R1(config)# interface s0
R1(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.147 255.255.255.0
• R1(config)# interface e0
R1(config-if)# ip address 10.1.4.0 255.255.252.0
• R2(config)# interface e0
R2(config-if)# ip address 10.1.16.1 255.255.255.0
• R2(config)# interface e0
R2(config-if)# ip address 10.1.31.254 255.255.240.0

27. Which of the following is used for the delivery of EIGRP routing information?
• Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP)
• Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL)
• Protocol-Dependent Modules (PDMs)
• Routing Table Maintenance Protocol (RTMP)

28. A mid-sized company has five remote locations with 55 end users at each location. The network administrator was assigned two consecutive Class C networks. Which three interior routing protocols will support this addressing scheme? (Choose three.)
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• BGP

29. In reference to the TCP/IP model, which protocol is used to determine the network access layer address associated with a known Internet layer address?
• ARP
• ICMP
• IP
• RARP
• TCP
• UDP

30. What are two authentication options supported by PPP? (Choose two.)
• clear text
• PAP
• CHAP
• LCP
• SLIP

31. What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
• proxy ARP
• CAM table exchanges
• host name tables
• routing protocols
• DNS lookups

32. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

33. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096


34. All routers shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. Which routers will PERTH engage in DR and BDR elections? (Choose three.)
• LONDON
• PALMER
• PERTH
• FRANKLIN

35. Which connection modes are supported on a Frame Relay subinterface? (Choose two.)
• dynamic
• multicast
• multipoint
• multipoint-to-point
• point-to-point
• static

36. How is spanning-tree path cost determined by default?
• total hop count
• sum of the costs based on bandwidth
• dynamically determined based on load
• individual link cost based on latency

37. What is used to resolve known IP addresses to unknown MAC addresses?
• ARP
• DNS
• DHCP
• RARP

38. Which statement describes dynamic routing correctly?
• Dynamic routing automatically adjusts for topology or traffic changes.
• Dynamic routing must always be used to reach a stub network.
• Dynamic routing uses route information entered by an administrator.
• Dynamic routing reveals everything known about an entire autonomous system.

39. Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
• bootstrap, RAM, operating system
• bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
• bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
• operating system, configuration file, RAM

40. Which Layer 4 protocol is connection-oriented and reliable?
• ICMP
• TCP
• TFTP
• UDP
• HTTP

41. Which type of protocol is used between routers to communicate and maintain tables?
• non-routable
• routable
• routed
• routing

42. Which utility shows the route a packet takes to reach its destination?
• netstat
• ping
• Telnet
• traceroute

43. Which of the following WAN services uses two data link layer encapsulations, one for data and one for signaling?
• ISDN
• Frame Relay
• ATM
• FDDI

44. Which statements describe the operation of VLANs? (Choose two.)
• All switch ports assigned to a VLAN are part of the same collision domain.
• All switch ports assigned to a VLAN are part of the same broadcast domain.
• Using VLANs to logically organize workgroups minimizes latency in the network.
• Members can be assigned to VLANs based on port ID, MAC address, or protocol.
• Multiple VLANs can be assigned to a single, Layer 3 network address and routers can be used to route traffic between VLANs.

45. Which command displays the active configuration of a router?
• Router# show flash
• Router# show configuration
• Router# show running-config
• Router# show startup-config

46. Which mode will a router enter if it is unable to locate a valid startup configuration file during the boot process?
• boot mode
• config mode
• RXBOOT mode
• ROM monitor mode
• setup mode
• turnkey mode

47. How is RIP configured on a router?
• RIP is configured globally and then assigned an IP address and subnet mask.
• RIP is configured globally and then applied to each interface that will participate in the RIP routing process.
• RIP is configured individually on each interface that will participate in the RIP routing process.
• RIP is enabled globally and then networks are associated with the RIP routing process.

48. Which packet-switched WAN technologies are characterized by the use of Permanent Virtual Circuits (PVCs)?
• Frame Relay and ISDN
• Frame Relay and X.25
• ISDN and X.25
• ISDN only

49. What can be created by borrowing bits from the host portion of an IP address?
• extended IP addresses
• additional IP addresses
• segments
• subnetworks
• smaller collision domains

50. The ISDN, Frame Relay, and HDLC encapsulations are defined at which layer of the OSI model?
• network
• session
• data link
• transport
• physical

51. How are VLANs configured?
• by moving switches to different router ports
• by changing switchports for each host on the segment
• by physically moving equipment to a different network
• through software
• through hardware
• automatically with a plug and play module

52. Within a Frame Relay network, which methods are used by switches to inform DTEs of congestion?
• CCP and LMI
• CIR and LATE
• DLCI and SPID
• FECN and BECN

53. What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)
• preventing broadcasts
• increasing available bandwidth per user
• decreasing the size of collision domains
• isolating traffic among segments
• routing traffic between different networks
• decreasing the number of broadcast domains


54. In an effort to minimize traffic, an administrator decided to keep web traffic from causing the ISDN link to come up by denying WWW traffic to the 192.168.20.5 remote server. Two minutes after making changes to the configuration as shown in the graphic, the administrator notices that web traffic is still passing over the link. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
• The dialer-group has not been applied to outbound traffic.
• The access-list is incorrectly configured.
• Broadcasts are creating "interesting" traffic and keeping the link active.
• The command ip access-group 128 out is missing from the bri0/0 interface.

55. What is another term for latency?
• backoff algorithm
• hold-down timer
• propagation delay
• redundancy

56. Which command will successfully configure a router to use PPP encapsulation on one of its links?
• router> encapsulation ppp
• router# encapsulation ppp
• router(config)# encapsulation ppp
• router(config-if)# encapsulation ppp

57. Which ISDN channel is used for call setup?
• B
• D
• X
• SS-7
• PRI
• BRI

58. Which automatic process is started first whenever power is applied to a Cisco router?
• empties contents of NVRAM
• looks for the configuration file
• performs a POST
• starts the operating system

59. Which of the following is the reference point between the NT1 and the phone company network?
• R
• S
• T
• U

60. Which LMI types are available with Cisco routers?
• ANSI, Cisco, HDLC
• ANSI, Cisco, q933a
• ANSI, Cisco, DLCI
• Cisco, IETF, q933a

61. Which device connects four-wire ISDN subscriber wiring to the conventional two-wire local loop?
• NT1
• NT2
• TE1
• TE2

62. How is the number 225 represented in binary?
• 11001111
• 11011011
• 11110011
• 11100001


63. Refer to the graphic. This company was assigned a Class C network address for its two sites. The network administrator subnetted accordingly and configured each router with RIP. However, these routers are unable to connect to each other. What could be the problem?
• RIP cannot be used in place of a static route.
• RIPv1 was configured instead of RIPv2.
• RIPv2 was configured instead of RIPv1.
• RIP does not support stub networks.

64. Which of the following commands sets a condition to allow packets through a named ACL?
• adjust
• apply
• control
• permit

CCNA 4 - Module Practice Final Exam 3.1 WAN Technologies

CCNA 4 - Module Practice Final Exam 3.1 WAN Technologies

1. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
• show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
• show frame-relay interface
• show interfaces
• show ip route

2. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
• A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
• Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
• The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
• LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
• Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

3. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
• Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29


5. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
• ip nat inside Raleigh overload
• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

6. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
• map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
• provide error notification
• provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

7. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
• Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

8. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN Switch
• Frame Relay Switch


9. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
• The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
• The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
• The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
• The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

10. Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
• determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
• adapts information for use on a service provider's network
• used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

11. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

12. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
• Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

13. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
• It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
• It is less expensive.
• It provides faster connection time.
• It provides less latency and jitter.

14. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
• Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

15. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
• terminal adapter
• modem
• CSU/DSU
• PBX switch
• ISDN switch
• Frame Relay Switch

16. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

17. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
• This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
• The encapsulation type is Cisco.
• The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
• The LMI type is Cisco.

18. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol

19. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
• There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
• Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.


20. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200


21. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
• Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
• 1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
• The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

22. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
• The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
• The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
• The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

23. What are three features of the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verify identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
• initiates a two-way handshake

24. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
• to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
• to translate domain names into IP addresses
• to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices


25. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
• debug ip dhcp binding

26. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
• IPCP
• CDPCP
• Multilink

27. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
• the enable password on the remote device
• the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
• the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device

28. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI

29. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation


30. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
• A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
• A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

31. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
• DHCP uses TCP.
• DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

32. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
• username tampa florida
• hostname tampa password florida
• hostname tampa florida

33. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
• HDLC
• IPCP
• LAPB
• LAPD
• NCP
• SS7

34. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
• DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
• DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
• DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.


35. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
• static
• dynamic
• overload
• private
• public


36. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225

37. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000


38. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
• The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
• The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).
• There is currently no congestion on the link.

39. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• packet-switched
• frame-switched
• dedicated-switched lines
• lease-switched

40. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• CO
• DCE
• DTE
• PRI
• BRI

41. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
• exchange of call setup and teardown messages
• PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
• protocol errors and statistics
• Layer 2 messages on the B channel

42. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:

Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down

What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
• serial cable missing
• interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing

43. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

44. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
• performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
• uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
• sends a random challenge throughout the session

45. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
• A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
• Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
• A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
• A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

46. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
• 2
• 16
• 23
• 24
• 30
• 128

CCNA 4 - Module Final Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

CCNA 4 - Module Final Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

1. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem


2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statements describe why the workstation with the IP address 192.168.89.99 cannot access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The NAT inside interface is not configured properly.
• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.99/28 to access the Internet.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.

3. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for 25 hosts at an insurance agency. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this company. What can the administrator do to provide Internet access to all 25 users at the same time?
• Configure the router with dynamic NAT with PAT.
• Configure the router with dynamic NAT for 25 users.
• Configure the router with DHCP and static NAT.
• Configure the router with static NAT for all 25 users.
• This cannot be done with only two public addresses.

4. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
• broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
• active indicates that the ARP process is working.


5. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
• Add a clock rate on RouterA.
• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

6. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
• NAT with DHCP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC with encryption
• HDLC with CHAP
• PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP

7. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
• PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
• No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.


8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is checking the status of router RTR_2. What is the most likely reason for the current status of the serial link to RTR_1?
• A cable has become disconnected.
• The circuit is experiencing excessive RFI.
• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
• The routers are configured for different WAN encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on one of the routers.

9. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

10. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
• The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
• The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

11. What are two of the steps required to configure a router to connect over ISDN BRI? (Choose two.)
• Configure the interface with a DLCI.
• Configure the SPIDs, if required by the ISDN switch.
• Specify the the LMI type to be compatible with the CO switch.
• Set the interface encapsulation to the Cisco or IETF frame type.
• Configure a subinterface for each B channel.
• Set the switch type to work with the ISDN switch at the CO.


12. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay point-to-point PVC. The ILM-5 router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco ILM-3 router and router ILM-5?
• ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc multipoint
• ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type ansi
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc point-to-point

13. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
• use PPP multilink
• lower idle timer setting
• use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

14. Which scenarios present possible reasons for using the frame-relay map command when configuring a Frame Relay connection? (Choose two.)
• when dynamic mapping of DLCIs to IP addresses is not supported by the remote router
• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled


15. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the Denver router has determined that the DHCP clients on the network are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely problem?
• The DHCP server service is not enabled.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

16. When configuring a Frame Relay network with subinterfaces, which commands are configured on the subinterface? (Choose three.)
• frame-relay interface-dlci
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• ip address
• frame-relay map
• switch type

17. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
• dial string
• DLCI
• idle time out
• interesting traffic
• PVC

18. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
• disable inverse ARP

19. Which IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.55.16.0.16
• 172.17.0.0/16
• 224.200.175.0/24
• 192.168.168.0/22
• 10.88.179.0/29
• 17.250.0.0/16

20. Which of the following statements are correct regarding PAT? (Choose two.)
• PAT is the best method to provide consistent global addresses for network servers.
• PAT can only be configured to use one IP address, which is usually the IP address of the serial interface of the router.
• PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside local IP address to distinguish between translations.
• PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside global IP address to distinguish between translations.
• When PAT is configured to use a pool of IP addresses and exhausts the ports of the first IP address, the router will move to the next available IP address.

21. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
• CIR
• DE
• DLCI
• ISDN
• FRAD
• PVC

22. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?

1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
• 1,2,3,4
• 1,3,2,4
• 2,3,1,4
• 2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
• 3,1,2,4


23. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the RTR-1 and RTR-2 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Although the show interfaces command shows the interface status as Serial0 is up, line protocol is up, IP traffic is not crossing this link. What is the problem?
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
• Interface serial 0/0 on RTR-1 must connect to interface serial 0/1 on RTR-2.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.

24. While testing a new network design in the lab, a network administrator is configuring a serial link that connects two routers back-to-back. In order to finish the configuration, the administrator needs to identify which router is connected to the DCE end of the cable. What command can be issued to provide this information?
• router# show status serial 0/0
• router# show controllers serial 0/0
• router# show protocols serial 0/0
• router# show version
• router# show interfaces serial 0/0


25. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
• There is not a route to the remote router.
• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

26. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

27. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this output?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.


28. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
• defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

29. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
• ITU-T Q.931
• ITU-T I.430
• ITU-T I.431

30. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
• show dialer
• show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
• show interfaces serial0/0.1

31. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• create a full-mesh topology
• disable Inverse ARP
• use point-to-point subinterfaces
• use multipoint subinterfaces
• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

32. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
• There is no clock present on the serial interface.
• The interface is shut down.
• RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.

33. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

34. How are the settings for ISDN switch type and SPIDs determined for a BRI interface configuration?
• assigned by the network administrator
• randomly, so long as they are not duplicated on the network
• by trial and error
• dynamically via Inverse ARP
• assigned by IANA
• assigned by the service provider

35. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link
• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.


36. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

37. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
• Install and configure a PRI.
• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

38. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.


39. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between the Central office and three remote sites: East Branch, West Branch, and Remote. The East Branch and West Branch offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Remote office is staffed by one salesperson who travels through the northwestern territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect these sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect the East Branch and West Branch remote offices with ISDN connections.
• Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with Frame Relay connections.
• Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with POTS dial-up connections.
• Connect the Remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect the Remote office with an ISDN connection.
• Connect the Remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.


40. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

CCNA 4 - Module 6 Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

1. Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
• network management station
• network management database
• management information base
• database information agent

2. Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.)
• The community strings are sent using UDP.
• The read only string on most devices is set to private.
• The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
• Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
• The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.

3. Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?
• Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
• Router(config)# logging routerA
• Router(config)# logging on
• Router(config)# logging enable

4. Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
• .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
• Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
• The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server.
• Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
• .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.

5. Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)
• It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
• It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
• More than one read-only community string is supported.
• Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
• The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.

6. How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?
• analyzes traps on the segment
• polls packets on the segment
• analyzes every frame on the segment
• analyzes source and destination addresses

7. An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.)
• GetRequest
• GetBulkRequest
• GetNextRequest
• SetRequest
• GetNextbulkRequest

8. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
• query
• broadcast
• ICMP ping
• trap
• poll

9. Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
• network management application
• network management agent
• management information base
• network management protocol


10. In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
• SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
• Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
• Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
• SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
• Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago

11. How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
• improved SMI features
• support for centralized and distributed management
• secure access to MIBs
• control of heterogeneous networks

12. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000

13. For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?
• workstations and servers
• workstations
• network servers
• large mainframe systems

14. Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
• Windows 2000 Professional
• Ciscoworks2000
• HP Openview
• Red Hat Linux
• Cisco ConfigMaker

15. Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.

16. Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.)
• protected memory
• sixty-two bit addressing
• preemptive multitasking
• open source operating system code
• symmetric multiprocessing
• Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity

CCNA 4 - Module 5 Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

CCNA 4 - Module 5 Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

1. What does a DLCI of 1023 indicate about a frame?
• The LMI type is ANSI.
• The LMI type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Cisco.
• The LMI type is Q933a.
• The encapsulation is Cisco.
• The encapsulation is IETF.

2. Which of the following statements are true about a basic Frame Relay WAN connection between a customer and the service provider? (Choose two.)
• DTE devices such as routers and FRADs transmit user data.
• DTE devices such as Frame Relay switches transport the data between DTE devices.
• An Ethernet connection between the router and the frame relay switch allow access to the frame relay network.
• Serial connections between the customer and the frame relay network are used to transport data.
• The Frame Relay WAN is a mesh of interconnected routers.

3. Which statement identifies a reason for using point-to-point subinterfaces in Frame Relay networks?
• Subinterfaces overcome routing update and split-horizon issues that occur with multipoint logical interfaces on a single physical interface.
• A point-to-point subinterface does not require an IP address and therefore saves address space.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces provide greater reliability and reachability in Frame Relay networks by requiring a mesh topology for network configurations.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces increase the number of DLCIs that can be configured in a Frame Relay network.

4. Which methods are used to minimize heavy traffic on a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• FRADs or routers set ECN bits to request that the Frame Relay switch reduce the flow of frames on the link.
• Windowing is used to reduce the size of the frames sent across the link.
• The Frame Relay switch will drop packets that have the DE bit set.
• When a switch sees its queue increasing, it notifies DTEs to reduce the flow of traffic.
• When congestion occurs, all frames are dropped until the congestion clears.

5. Which features make Frame Relay technology a cost-effective alternative to a mesh of dedicated leased lines? (Choose three.)
• allows a single interface to support multiple PVCs
• minimizes the equipment required to be purchased by the customer
• requires one router interface for each PVC
• provides the customer with redundancy if a single interface goes down
• allows the customer to pay for the average bandwidth requirement rather than the maximum bandwidth requirement

6. Why is the keepalive mechanism added as an extension to the Local Management Interface in a Frame Relay network?
• to identify which routers were experiencing congestion
• to verify the status of PVCs in the Frame Relay network
• to dynamically map a MAC address to an IP address in a Frame Relay network
• to signal to the router the status of the routing protocols configured in the Frame Relay network

7. Which of the following statements regarding multipoint subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
• A single multipoint subinterface is used to establish PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces on remote routers.
• Each multipoint link is in its own subnet.
• The physical interface does not have an IP address.
• Split-horizon is disabled allowing routing updates to be re-transmitted on every subinterface.
• Multipoint subinterfaces require the encapsulation frame-relay command to be issued individually for each subinterface to operate correctly.

8. Which bits are set in the data frames to request that a device reduce the flow of data sent to or from a Frame Relay switch?
• EIR bits
• ECN bits
• CIR bits
• DE bits
• Window bits

9. Why are full mesh topologies seldom found in large Frame Relay networks?
• Additional hardware is required to achieve the mesh.
• The additional virtual circuits slow the link access speeds.
• The required number of links becomes prohibitive.
• Additional interfaces are required since each can only support 10 virtual circuits.
• The speed of transmission slows in inverse proportion to the square of the number of links.


10. When troubleshooting a frame relay connection, a technician entered the show frame-relay pvc command shown in the graphic. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• The output in the debug frame-relay lmi command will indicate status 0x2 for DLCI 18.
• DLCI 16 was correctly programmed on the switch, but the remote router may be misconfigured.
• The frame relay switch is sending LMI status messages about DLCI 16 to the Singapore router.
• Congestion has been experienced on DLCI 18.
• Some packets have been set to be dropped if congestion is experienced on the PVC.

11. Which of the following DLCIs are reserved?
• 16
• 127
• 255
• 1023
• 2048


12. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

13. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a Frame Relay frame?
• It serves to distinguish one frame from the next.
• It is used to signal network congestion.
• It is used to detect if the frame has been corrupted and should be discarded.
• It determines which VC should be used for transmission.

14. Which of the following allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
• ICMP

15. How is a permanent virtual circuit identified in a Frame Relay network that is carrying IP traffic?
• It is given a fixed locally significant identification number.
• It is identified by the MAC address of the router interface.
• Dynamic virtual channel identifiers are assigned to each frame transmitted across the network.
• It is identifed by the MAC address of the switch port.

16. Which of the following occurs when the command frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 22 is configured on the router? (Choose two.)
• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• The remote circuit with DLCI 22 can receive a ping.
• Inverse-ARP will be used to add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the frame-relay map table using DLCI 22.
• Pings to 10.1.1.1 will be sent on the circuit labeled DLCI 22.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.

17. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
• switched parallel circuit
• permanent virtual circuit
• limited access circuit
• ISDN circuit
• Frame Relay circuit


18. Which commands were added to the configuration to produce the output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• Router(config)# ip route 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 17 broadcast
• Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type cisco 17
• Router(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 192.168.192.4 17 broadcast
• Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 DLCI 17 static
• Router(config-if)# interface S0/0.1 point-to-point
• Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco

19. Which data link layer protocol is used to carry frames across a Frame Relay link?
• PPP
• LAPD
• LAPF
• Frame Relay


20. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225

21. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

CCNA 4 - Module 4 Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

CCNA 4 - Module 4 Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

1. What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)
• ISDN switch type
• Service Profile Identifier (SPID)
• Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)
• PRI group time slot
• T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding


2. The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem?
• The dialer map is configured incorrectly.
• The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.
• The dialer group is configured incorrectly.
• The ACL is configured incorrectly.
• The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.

3. Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?
• using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission
• transmitting data over a control channel
• using a separate channel for control signals
• transmitting control signals over a data channel

4. A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch?
• debug pap authentication
• debug chap authentication
• debug ppp authentication
• debug isdn authentication

5. Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)
• selects the ISDN switch type
• identifies the line configuration of the BRI service
• allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop
• designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2
• allows ISDN broadcasts


6. A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?
• show isdn status
• show isdn active
• show dialer
• show interface bri0/0
• debug isdn active

7. Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose two.)
• They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.
• Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.
• Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.
• They use PPP only.
• They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.

8. Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information, including the called number?
• show isdn status
• show isdn active
• show interfaces bri0/0
• show ip interfaces


9. A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?
• show isdn status
• show isdn active
• show dialer
• show interfaces bri0/0
• debug isdn q931
• show ISDN interfaces

10. Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)
• two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
• B channel is suitable for voice data
• uses in-band signaling
• uses out-of-band signaling
• offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection
• twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

11. Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?
• Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}
• Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}
• Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1
• Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1

12. Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?
• ISDN switch type
• line encoding technique
• line framing method
• local directory number
• service profile identifier

13. A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an S/T interface. What further equipment will be provided by the ISDN service provider for the ISDN connection?
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• BRI WAN interface card to install in the router
• an external NT1 to terminate the local loop
• a TA/NT1 device to install on the router

14. Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?
• Switches use various implementations of Q.931.
• The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.
• The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.
• The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.

15. What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an ISDN interface?
• An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.
• A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative distance.
• Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.
• Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.
• Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.

16. Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that used on other interfaces on the router?
• Router(config)#switch-type switch-type
• Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type
• Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type
• Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type

17. You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U" interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN network?
• An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.
• An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.
• The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.
• The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.

18. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol

CCNA 4 - Module 3 Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

CCNA 4 - Module 3 Exam Version 3.1 WAN Technologies

1. Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?
• ppp link 50
• ppp link quality 60
• ppp percentage 80
• ppp quality 90

2. How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)
• uses a one-way hash function
• authentication occurs more rapidly
• challenges are unique
• the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
• the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge

3. ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links?
• Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
• Router(config-if)# ip variance
• Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
• Router(config-if)# ppp multilink

4. What are three features of the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verify identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
• initiates a two-way handshake

5. A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
• Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
• Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
• Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
• Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
• Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
• Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress

6. Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
• HDLC provides flow and error control.
• Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
• HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
• HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
• Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.

7. When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command:

Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.

What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)
• Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
• The interface hardware may be faulty.
• The cabling may be improperly connected.

8. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

9. Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
• It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
• Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
• Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
• TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.

10. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:

Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)

What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)
• interface missing the no shutdown command
• clockrate command missing
• CSU/DSU failed
• interface shutdown due to high error rate
• cable missing

11. Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
• configure each host with a PPP address
• configure authentication between the two routers
• send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters
• send hostname and password information between the two routers


12. Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
• show ppp traffic
• show lcp traffic
• debug ppp negotiation
• debug ppp authentication

13. Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
• MD5
• CHAP
• PAP
• NCP

14. Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
• Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
• Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
• More than one authentication method can be used.
• More than one compression protocol can be configured.

15. Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
• to establish a PPP session
• to provide error checking on a WAN link
• to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
• to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router

16. A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?
• show controllers
• show processes
• show run
• show status


17. Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

18. PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
• testing the quality of the link
• routing packets between devices
• assigning individual station addresses
• configuring network layer protocols
• negotiating authentication options

19. How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?
• split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
• identified the protocol in the FCS field
• compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
• added a type field to identify the protocol


20. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• A two-way handshake is occuring.
• The LCPs were already negotiated.
• The router can begin NCP negotiations.
• The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
• The debug ppp authentication command was executed