But if you find the same answers for all the Module anywhere in the internet.
And if you have an Answers are correct 100% or if you find an answer, What is wrong in this blog. please send me. (Post in blog or Send Email )
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Monday, October 6, 2008

CCNA 1 Networking Basics (Version 3.1)

Select an Assessment - CCNA 1 Networking Basics (Version 3.1) 2007


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CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (B)

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (B)

1. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

2. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 156
• 158
• 160
• 162
• 164
• 166

3. Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
• file size
• data format
• network in use
• type of medium
• bandwidth of the link

4. Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
• 52.2 seconds
• 21.3 seconds
• 6.4 seconds
• 2 seconds
• 0.075 seconds
• 0.0375 seconds

5. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• handles representation, encoding and dialog control
• uses TCP and UDP protocols
• packet switching
• reliability, flow control and error correction

6. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)
• neutral and neutral
• neutral and positive
• neutral and negative
• positive and positive
• positive and negative
• negative and negative

7. Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)
• glass fibers
• copper
• gold
• plastic
• silicon
• silver

8. During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
• bit speed
• attenuation
• wire map
• saturation limit
• analog bandwidth

9. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)
• between workstation and backbone switch
• between individual workstations
• between backbone switches
• between enterprise server and switch
• on aggregate access links

10. What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?
• a transducer
• a transmitter
• a transceiver
• a transponder
• a port replicator

11. An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

12. Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)
• frame format
• media
• connectors
• timing
• multi-part encoding

13. Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?
• the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
• the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
• the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
• the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously

14. For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
• inter-building connection
• mid-length voice
• video conferencing
• vertical wiring
• horizontal wiring
• diagonal wiring

15. John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John's inexperience?
• collision domain extended
• an increased number of collision domains
• increased network performance
• increased bandwidth
• extended bandwidth

16. "CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
• MAC request
• ARP request
• ping
• Telnet
• proxy ARP

17. Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?
• encapsulation
• latency
• segmentation
• layered model
• broadcast domain
• extended

18. The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
• anonymous FTP servers
• telnet sessions
• video over IP applications
• NAS services
• ARP requests
• RIP updates

19. Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• resolve routing loops
• eliminate Split Horizon errors
• limit collisions
• resolve switching loops

20. Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Proxy RARP

21. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?
• session
• transport
• network
• data link

22. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
• session

23. Which of the following are Cisco proprietary routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• RIPv2
• IGRP
• OSPF
• BGP
• RIPv1
• EIGRP

24. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224

25. A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240

26. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
• 1022
• 510
• 254
• 126
• 30
• 6

27. If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
• NFS
• ASCII
• TFTP
• IMAP
• FTP
• UDP

28. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)
• a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
• a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
• a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
• a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
• a control connection between the client and server

29. Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)
• TFTP
• SNMP
• POP3
• SMTP
• IMAP4
• postoffice

30. What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
• a fault
• a short
• an open
• a split
• a good map

31. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 6

32. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable

33. What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
• The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
• The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
• Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
• The maximum frame length is 10 octets.


34. How is a MAC address represented?
• four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
• four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
• six hexadecimal digits
• twelve hexadecimal digits
• twenty-four Base10 digits

35. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule

36. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11c
• 802.11d

37. Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
• File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
• Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
• Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
• Internet Protocol (IP)
• User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
• Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

38. Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)
• configuring the e-mail client
• installing NIC drivers
• configuring IP network settings
• connecting the network cable
• using FTP to download application software updates

39. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet

40. Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
• It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
• It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
• It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
• It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.

41. In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
• coaxial
• screened twisted pair
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair
• fiber optic

42. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?
• 25
• 15
• 10
• 5
• 2

43. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

44. Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
• government
• education
• network
• non-profit

45. Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
• DNS
• WINS
• DHCP
• Telnet

46. Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
• www
• http://
• /teacher
• awsb.ca

47. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
• ping 10.10.10.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ping 127.0.0.1
• ping 223.223.223.223
• ping 255.255.255.255

48. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?
• bit
• frame
• packet
• segment

49. Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)
• transistor
• microprocessor
• power supply
• capacitor
• light emitting diode
• hard disk

50. What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
• It links data to the transport layer.
• It encapsulates frames into packets.
• It provides a service to the network layer.
• It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
• Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.

51. Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.39.1
• 111.9.28.30
• 123.1.2.132
• 128.50.38.2
• 105.1.34.1
• 0.23.92.3

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (A)

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam Answers (A)

1. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

2. Router interface Ethernet 0 has been assigned the IP address 10.172.192.168 255.255.255.240. What is the network IP address of this interface?
• 10.0.0.0
• 10.172.0.0
• 10.172.192.0
• 10.172.192.160
• 10.172.192.168
• 10.172.192.175

3. Examine the graphic with current configurations. The New York Offices of ABC Company recently upgraded the computers in the administrative office. Shortly after the upgrade, Host A in the clerical office failed and was replaced with one of the retired administrative office computers. However, the computer can not access the company network in the new location. What is the likely cause of this network access issue for Host A?
• MAC address incorrectly entered
• default gateway incorrectly entered
• subnet mask incorrectly entered
• IP address incorrectly entered

4. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?
• the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
• the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
• a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
• an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub •

5. What is attenuation?
• opposition to the flow of current
• measurement of electrical signals relative to time
• degradation of a signal as it travels along the medium
• amount or volume of traffic that is flowing on the medium

6. Two peer hosts are running applications that exchange data using UDP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. What is true concerning the retransmission of the datagram?
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the source host.
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the destination host.
• Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application layer protocol.
• Datagram retransmission involves only the data with sequence numbers equal to or higher than the sequence number of the current datagram.

7. What is significant about the ping 127.0.0.1 command?
• It verifies the operation of the TCP/IP protocol stack on a host and is called an internal loopback test.
• It verifies connection to the remote host with the IP address 127.0.0.1.
• It verifies whether the router that connects the local network to other networks can be reached.
• It verifies the route packets take between the local host and the host with the IP address 127.0.0.1.

8. Which LAN switching mode has the highest latency?
• fast forward
• fragment-free
• latency forwarding
• store-and-forward

9. Which of the following application layer protocols use UDP segments? (Choose two.)
• DNS
• FTP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• SMTP

10. Which cable specifications are indicated by 100BASE-T?
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, coaxial cable
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, broadband signal, twisted-pair cable
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
• Equal to 10-Gbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable

11. When is a crossover cable used in a network?
• when connecting a host to the router console port
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a host to a host
• when connecting a switch to a router

12. Refer to the graphic. What must be configured on Host A to allow it communicate with the e-mail server? (Choose three.)
• IP address •
• subnet mask •
• default gateway •
• router name
• switch name
• NetBIOS name address

13. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
• Cable A
• Cable B
• Cable C
• Cable D

14. Which type of address is 192.168.17.134/29?
• host address
• network address
• broadcast address
• multicast address

15. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight

16. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router

17. How does network cable length affect attenuation?
• Category 5 cable that is run in metal conduit has the highest attenuation in the shortest distance.
• Shorter cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
• Longer cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
• The length of the cable has no effect on signal attenuation.

18. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It is a media access method used in LANs. •
• It is a media access method used in FDDI WANs.
• When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available. •
• A device sends data without checking media availability because all devices have equal access.
• Multiple devices can successfully transmit simultaneously.
• Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.

19. Which of the following must be present for current to flow? (Choose three.)
• closed loop
• bit-generating device
• insulating material
• source of voltage
• load
• switch

20. If Host A pings Host B through a newly installed switch with no entries in the MAC address table, which stations will receive the ping packet?
• B only
• A and B
• B and switch
• A, B, and switch
• B, C, D, and switch •
• A, B, C, D, and switch

21. Which devices shown in the graphic must have a MAC address?
• only PC
• only router
• PC and router
• PC, hub, and router
• PC, printer, and router

22. What kind of connection is represented in the graphic?
• console connection
• Ethernet connection
• ISDN connection
• leased line connection

23. Which of the following is the decimal representation of the binary number 11010011?
• 203
• 204
• 211
• 212

24. Which type of cable is required to make a connection between a router console port and a PC COM port?
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• rollover cable
• DB-9 cable
• coaxial cable

25. Determine the number of useable networks and hosts for the IP address 192.168.50.0/27
• 4 networks / 62 hosts
• 6 networks / 64 hosts
• 32 networks / 8 hosts
• 6 networks / 30 hosts
• 8 networks / 32 hosts
• 2 networks / 8 hosts

26. A network administrator is placing an older router back in to service. The administrator discovered that the IOS and configuration files need to be updated to meet the LAN specifications. Which application layer protocol is used to transfer the new configuration files into the router memory?
• SNMP
• SMTP
• HTTP
• TFTP

27. Which of the following best describes Spanning Tree Protocol?
• It enables a network to span across multiple physical segments.
• It enables a switch to eliminate switching loops.
• It enables a switch to dynamically choose the best switch mode.
• It enables a switch to perform as a router.

28. Which of the following subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.192.255.0
• 255.224.0.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.255.128

29. How is data encapsulated as it is moved down the OSI model?
• data, segments, frames, packets, bits
• data, packets, segments, frames, bits
• data, segments, packets, frames, bits
• data, packets, frames, segments, bits

30. Which of the following describes latency?
• the noise generated from outside a cable
• the degradation of a signal as it travels along the media
• the time required for a NIC to place a frame on the network media
• the delay between the time a frame leaves its source device and reaches its destination

31. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal number 111?
• 01101111
• 01111101
• 11110111
• 11101101

32. Which LAN switching mode begins switching after reading only the first 64 bytes of the frame?
• fast forward
• fragment-free
• latency forwarding
• store-and-forward

33. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
• 1 and 2; 4 and 5
• 1 and 2; 3 and 6 •
• 3 and 6; 7 and 8
• 4 and 5; 7 and 8

34. Which of the following commands could be used on a Windows-based computer to view the current IP configuration of the system? (Choose two.)
• configip
• ifconfig
• ipconfig
• winipcfg
• winipconfig

35. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?
• host address
• network address
• broadcast address
• multicast address

36. Which of the following networking devices increase the number of collision domains? (Choose three.)
• switch
• hub
• router
repeater
• bridge

37. What information can be determined from the MAC addresses of PC1, PC2, and PC3, as shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• PC1 and PC2 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same OUI identifier.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have different OUI identifiers.
• PC1 and PC2 NICs are from the same vendor.
• PC1 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same vendor-assigned address.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs are from different vendors.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs are from the same vendor.

38. Which of the following are considered WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
• DSL
• Ethernet
• Wireless Ethernet
• T1-Carrier
• Token Ring

39. which one of the router connectors shown in the graphic would be used for a LAN connection?
• Connector A
• Connector B
• Connector C
• Connector D

40. How is full-duplex capability typically achieved in fiber-optic cable?
• Two fibers are encased in separate sheaths.
• Light is bounced at different rates in opposite directions.
• Transmit speeds are so high that half-duplex is acceptable.
• Colors of the light spectrum are separated into transmit and receive streams.

41. Which of the following are characteristics of IP? (Choose three.)
• connection-oriented protocol
• connectionless protocol•
• reliable protocol
• unreliable protocol •
• routed protocol •
• routing protocol

42. Which of the following describe the token-passing logical topology? (Choose two.)
• FDDI is an example of a token-passing network.
• Token-passing logical topologies must also be physical ring topologies.
• One of the disadvantages of the token-passing logical topology is the high collision rate.
• Computers transmit data after "listening" to the wire to detect other traffic.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.

43. What is the maximum length of a media segment used for 100BASE-TX?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 400 meters
• 500 meters

44. which of the following networking devices divide a network into separate collision domains? (Choose two.)
• repeater
• bridge
• switch
• AUI
• hub

45. Which of the following are characteristics of UTP cable? (Choose three.)
• Each wire is covered by insulating material.
• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• It is a four-pair wire medium.•
• It is difficult to terminate the cable.
• It relies on the cancellation effect produced by the twisted wire pairs.
• It is more expensive than any other type of LAN cabling.

46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
• subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

47. Which of the following describes a physical full-mesh topology?
• It requires termination at both ends of the cable.
• It uses a hub or a switch as a central point to connect all wires.
• It provides maximum connectivity between all network systems.
• It links all computers to a main computer that controls all traffic on the network.

48. Which two statements describe the TFTP protocol? (Choose two.)
• uses authenticated file transfer procedure
• provides connection-oriented service
• provides connectionless service
• provides more features that FTP
• lacks most of the features of FTP

49. Which of the following are transport layer protocols of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
• FTP
• UDP
• SMTP
• TFTP
• TCP

50. Which type of UTP network cable connects two Cisco switches?
• straight-through
• crossover
• rollover
• patch

51. How will the MAIN router dynamically learn a route to the 10.16.10.48/28 subnetwork in the diagram?
• with a routed protocol
• with a routing protocol
• with a static route
• with a directly connected route

52. Which of the following describes the RIP version 1 routing protocol?
• Cisco proprietary hybrid protocol
• distance vector protocol that uses hop count as the only metric •
• link state protocol supporting multiple routed protocols
• distance vector protocol that uses delay, bandwidth, load, and reliability metrics

53. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?
• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight

54. Which of the following are advantages of UTP cable? (Choose three.)
• less expensive than fiber optic
• flexible and easy to run in a building
• distance between signal boosts is longer than it is for coaxial
• transmits data at a faster rate than any copper-based media
• receives less RMF and EMI interference than other types

Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (choose 2)
• -hub
• -repeater

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 11 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 11 Exam Answers

1 .Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)
• 19
• 20
• 21

• 22

2 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?
• SMTP
• SNMP
• FTP
• TFTP
• EIGRP

3 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?
• TFTP
• TCP
• DNS
• IP
• UDP

4 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?
• TCP uses only LAN connections.
• TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
• TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
• TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.

5 What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)
• port numbers
• checksum values
• authentication keys
• sequence numbers
• encryption algorithms
• acknowledgment numbers

6 What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?
• The web browser needs to locate the www server.
• The address is located on a site whose name is http.
• The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.
• The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.

7 When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
• network
• application
• session
• transport

8 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
• no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
• connection-oriented
• provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
• reliability provided by the application layer
• connectionless

• utilizes sliding windowing techniques

9 Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?
• FTP
• SMTP
• SNMP
• DNS
• HTTP
• WWW

10 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?
• indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
• reassemble the segments into the correct order
• identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
• track different conversations crossing the network at the same time

11 If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are being used?
• UDP, connection-oriented
• UDP, connectionless
• TCP, connection-oriented
• TCP, connectionless

12 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?
• FTP
• TFTP
• SNMP
• TCP
• DHCP

13 Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer between two hosts?
• Application
• Presentation
• Session
• Transport

14 Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• end-to-end connectivity
• flow control

• security control
• data representation
• encryption of data

15 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
SNMP

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 10 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 10 Exam Answers

1. At which layer of the OSI model does the device reside that is functioning as the default gateway for hosts on a network?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 7

2. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

3.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 – 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
• The LAN is being addressed properly.
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. A student in the Cisco network class has designed a small office network to enable hosts to access the Internet. What recommendation should the teacher provide to the student in regards to the network design?
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a hub.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a router.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a bridge.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a transceiver.

5. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
• static routes
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

7. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

8. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

9.

Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network through the router?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 92.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 92.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 92.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 92.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.10.1

11. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

12.

Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

13. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

15. How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?
• The number of switches must increase.
• The collisions prevent the copying of data.
• The broadcasts are contained within a subnet.
• The number of host IP addresses is increased.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

17. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?
• A subnet mask is not necessary when a default gateway is specified.
• A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.
• A subnet mask is used to determine in which subnet an IP address belongs.
• A subnet mask is used to separate the 48-bit address into the OUI and the vendor serial number.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
• The configuration will work as planned.
• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
• The default gateway of host A is a network address.
• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.

19. What is the primary purpose of a routing protocol?
• to propagate broadcast messages
• to map IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to switch traffic to all available interfaces
• sharing network information between routers

20. Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses from router to router? (Choose two.)
• Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
• Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.

• Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.

21. Which type of routing uses manual entry of information and does not scale well in large internetworks?
• interior
• exterior
• static
• dynamic

22. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62

23. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

24. Which device would add security to a network by not forwarding broadcasts?
• hub
• router
• switch
• bridge
• repeater

25. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 9/10 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 9/10 Exam Answers

1. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

2. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

3. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
• The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.



5. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23

6. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts

• to assign a MAC address to a host


7.
Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0
• 225.1.5.0

8.
Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

9.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.


10. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

11. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

12.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234


13. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

14.
Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

15. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

16. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

17.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network through the router?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.10.1

18.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
• The configuration will work as planned.
• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
• The default gateway of host A is a network address.
• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.

19.
Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

20.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 – 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
• The LAN is being addressed properly.
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

21. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
• static routes
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

22. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

23. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

24.
Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

25. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 9 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 9 Exam Answers

1. What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)
• The originating host dynamically issues an arp –a command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network receives this packet.
• The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its MAC address back to the originating host.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the originating host with its MAC address.

2. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

3. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255

5. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

6.
Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0
• 225.1.5.0

7. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

8. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23


9.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.


10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

11. Why were private IP addresses developed?
• to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses
• to permit the duplication of public IP addresses
• to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses
• to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks
• to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses

12. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

13. When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the destination MAC address of a remote host?
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination
• sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway

14.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown in the exhibit?
• to configure the computer to use ARP
• to configure the computer to use DHCP
• to configure the computer to use a routing protocol
• to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address

15. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

16. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

17. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

18. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

19. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
• to assign a MAC address to a host

20.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
• The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 8 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 8 Exam Answers

1. What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?
• forwards data based on logical addressing
• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
• uses the destination MAC address to determine the specific interface to forward a frame

2. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)
• A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
• A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
• A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
• A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN
• A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.

• The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct the problem?
• Replace the hub with a switch.
• Replace the hub with a router.
• Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
• Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.

4.

Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?
• segments 1 and 2
• segment 2
• segments 3 and 4
• segments 2, 3, and 4
• segments 1, 2, 3, and 4

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router

6. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?
• hub
• router
• switch
• repeater

7. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• bridge
• hub
• switch

• repeater

8. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)
switch
• repeater
• router
• bridge

• hub


9. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• hub
• switch
• router
repeater


10.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?
• 1
• 2
• 5
• 12
• 13
• 15

11. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?
• The frame is a runt frame.
• The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
• The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
• The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.

12. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?
• bridge
• hub
• router
• transceiver

13. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?
• discard frame
• ignore frame
• send frame to appropriate port
• send frame to all ports except source port

14. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
• hub
• Layer 2 switch
• router
• bridge
• repeater

15. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?
• bridging
• segmentation
• Address Resolution Protocol
• Spanning-Tree Protocol

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 7 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 7 Exam Answers

1. Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-LX

2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber

• primarily used between workstations option

3. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX


4. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule

5. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

6. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

7. What RJ-45 pins are unused when transmitting and receiving data in an Ethernet 100BASE-T Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two.)
• 1 and 2
• 3 and 6

• 4 and 5
• 7 and 8


8. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

9. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP

• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

10. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T

• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 6/7 Exam Answers

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - Module 6/7 Exam Answers

1. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
• Logical Link Control
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

2.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
• The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
• The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
• The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
• The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.

3. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
• application
• session
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical


4. Where does the MAC address originate?
• DHCP server database
• configured by the administrator
• burned into ROM on the NIC card
• network configuration on the computer
• included in the creation of the processor chip

5. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 7

6. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?
• serial and ISDN interfaces
• Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
• Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
• Token Ring and serial interfaces

7. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
• hub
• modem
• repeater
• NIC
• Layer 2 switch

8.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
• autonegotiation
• FastEthernet
• peer-to-peer shared resources
• administratively configured full duplex

9.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

10. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.

• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

11. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

12.


Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.
• When the four hosts detect the collision, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 generate a jam signal.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.

13. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?
• The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
• The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
• The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
• The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.

14. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

15. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX


16. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

17. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

18. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

19. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP

• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

20. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T

• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX